When assessing for orthostatic hypotension during blood pressure measurement, what action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Position the client supine for a few minutes
- B. Assist the client to stand at the bedside
- C. Apply the blood pressure cuff securely
- D. Record the client's pulse rate and rhythm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When assessing for orthostatic hypotension, the initial step is to position the client supine for a few minutes. This allows the body to adjust to the supine position before assessing blood pressure changes that may indicate orthostatic hypotension. By observing the blood pressure after the client has rested supine, the nurse can accurately assess for any drop in blood pressure upon standing, which is indicative of orthostatic hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the initial step in assessing for orthostatic hypotension, which is ensuring the client is positioned correctly to detect blood pressure changes upon standing.
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A client who has been on bed rest for several days is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate as tolerated.
- B. Apply antiembolism stockings as prescribed.
- C. Elevate the client's legs on a pillow.
- D. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises daily.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Applying antiembolism stockings as prescribed (B) is an effective intervention to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client on bed rest. While encouraging ambulation (A), elevating the legs (C), and performing passive range-of-motion exercises (D) are also beneficial, compression stockings are particularly effective in reducing the risk of DVT by promoting venous return and reducing stasis in the lower extremities.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Oliguria.
- B. Kussmaul respirations.
- C. Fruity odor on the breath.
- D. Blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (B) are a deep and labored breathing pattern associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and are expected in this condition. While oliguria (A), fruity odor on the breath (C), and elevated blood glucose level (D) are also signs of DKA, Kussmaul respirations are more specific and critical to the condition, indicating severe metabolic acidosis.
A CVA (stroke) patient goes into respiratory distress and is placed on a ventilator. The client's daughter arrives with a durable power of attorney and a living will that indicates there should be no extraordinary life-saving measures. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Refer to the risk manager
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Discontinue the ventilator
- D. Review the medical record
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should notify the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider needs to be informed to review the legal documents provided by the patient's daughter, such as the durable power of attorney and living will, which specify the patient's wishes regarding life-saving measures. The healthcare provider will be responsible for making the appropriate decision based on the legal documents and the patient's current condition. Referring to the risk manager (choice A) is not necessary as the issue at hand pertains to the patient's medical care. Discontinuing the ventilator (choice C) without healthcare provider input could go against the patient's wishes and legal documents. Reviewing the medical record (choice D) may not provide immediate guidance on the current situation and the patient's preferences regarding life-saving measures.
The healthcare professional observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the healthcare professional's intervention?
- A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
- B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
- C. The client is placed in a prone position.
- D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse is the site for auscultation when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. Auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg is incorrect as it may lead to an inaccurate reading. Placing the client in a prone position and wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg are acceptable practices. A systolic reading that is 20 mm Hg higher in the lower extremity compared to the arm is expected due to the difference in blood pressure between the upper and lower parts of the body.
The healthcare provider is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during surgery?
- A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
- B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
- C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
- D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications such as excessive bleeding and difficulty in achieving hemostasis. This poses a significant threat during a surgical procedure where controlling bleeding is crucial for a successful outcome. The other options (A, C, D) are not as critical as anticoagulants in terms of posing a threat for complications during surgery. Birth control pills, recently completing antibiotic therapy, and using laxatives do not directly impact bleeding risks during surgery compared to anticoagulants.