A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hyperalbuminemia
- B. Proteinuria
- C. Decreased serum lipid levels
- D. Decreased coagulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteinuria. In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased permeability of the glomerular filtration membrane, leading to excessive loss of proteins in the urine, specifically albumin. This results in proteinuria. Choice A, hyperalbuminemia, is incorrect as nephrotic syndrome actually causes hypoalbuminemia due to protein loss. Choice C, decreased serum lipid levels, is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome causes hyperlipidemia due to increased hepatic synthesis of lipoproteins. Choice D, decreased coagulation, is incorrect as nephrotic syndrome is associated with hypercoagulability due to loss of anticoagulant proteins in the urine.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is admitting a client who has arthritis pain and reports taking ibuprofen several times daily for 3 years. Which of the following tests should the nurse monitor?
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Stool for occult blood
- C. Fasting blood glucose
- D. Urine for white blood cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stool for occult blood. Long-term use of ibuprofen can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, which may not always present with visible blood in the stool. Monitoring for occult blood helps detect this potential side effect early. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to the adverse effects of ibuprofen use. Serum calcium is not typically affected by ibuprofen. Fasting blood glucose monitoring is more relevant for medications affecting glucose metabolism. Urine for white blood cells is not a common test for monitoring the side effects of ibuprofen.
A nurse in the emergency department is managing the care of a client who has an electrical shock injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Obtain an ECG.
- B. Administer an opioid pain medication.
- C. Infuse IV fluids to maintain urine output at 75 mL/hr.
- D. Change dressings over the entrance and exit wounds.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain an ECG. The first step in managing a client with an electrical shock injury is to assess for any cardiac complications, as electrical shock can cause arrhythmias. Obtaining an ECG will help the nurse identify any abnormal heart rhythms and determine the need for immediate intervention. Administering opioid pain medication (B) is not a priority as assessing the cardiac status takes precedence. Infusing IV fluids (C) is important but not the first priority. Changing dressings (D) can wait until the client's immediate medical needs are addressed.
A nurse is caring for a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus. During assessment, which of the following should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Joint inflammation
- B. Butterfly' rash
- C. Esophagitis
- D. Trophil
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Joint inflammation. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) commonly presents with joint inflammation due to inflammation of the synovial membrane. This can lead to pain, swelling, and stiffness in the joints. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Butterfly rash is a characteristic facial rash seen in SLE, but it is not related to joint involvement. C: Esophagitis is inflammation of the esophagus and is not a common manifestation of SLE. D: Trophil is not a recognized term in relation to SLE or its symptoms.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has hemiplegia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Instruct the client to sit on a rubber ring when seated in a chair.
- B. Raise the head of the client's bed to a 90° angle.
- C. Place pillows between the client's knees when in a side-lying position.
- D. Use moisturizing lotion while massaging the client's bony prominences.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place pillows between the client's knees when in a side-lying position. Placing pillows between the knees helps maintain proper alignment of the hips and spine, preventing the development of pressure ulcers and improving comfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect as sitting on a rubber ring does not directly address the client's hemiplegia. Choice B is incorrect because raising the head of the bed to a 90° angle may not be suitable for a client with hemiplegia due to potential issues with positioning and pressure distribution. Choice D is incorrect as using moisturizing lotion while massaging bony prominences is not a specific intervention for hemiplegia care.
A home health nurse is assessing a client who has pernicious anemia. Which of the following is an expected manifestation that poses a risk to the client's safety?
- A. Loss of hearing
- B. Paresthesia
- C. Muscle wasting
- D. Changes in vision
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Paresthesia. Pernicious anemia leads to Vitamin B12 deficiency, causing nerve damage and paresthesia (tingling or burning sensation). This poses a risk to the client's safety as it can affect their balance and coordination, increasing the risk of falls and injuries. Loss of hearing (A), muscle wasting (C), and changes in vision (D) are potential manifestations of pernicious anemia but do not directly pose a risk to safety like paresthesia.