Nokea
A community health nurse is addressing the issue of elder abuse in the community. Which intervention should be prioritized?
- A. providing education on the signs of elder abuse
- B. setting up a support group for elder abuse survivors
- C. partnering with local law enforcement to increase patrols
- D. creating a confidential hotline for reporting abuse
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The prioritized intervention for addressing elder abuse in the community should be the creation of a confidential hotline for reporting abuse. A confidential hotline offers a safe and accessible way for individuals to report elder abuse and seek help promptly. Providing education on the signs of elder abuse (Choice A) is important but may not directly address immediate reporting and intervention needs. Setting up a support group for elder abuse survivors (Choice B) is beneficial for emotional support but may not address the primary need for reporting abuse. Partnering with local law enforcement to increase patrols (Choice C) focuses on prevention rather than providing a direct reporting mechanism for victims.
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A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
- D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.
A client is suspected of being poisoned and presents with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth. The nurse should consider these findings consistent with which potential bioterrorism agent?
- A. ricin
- B. botulism toxin
- C. sulfur mustard
- D. yersinia pestis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: botulism toxin. The symptoms described, including symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth, are classic manifestations of botulism, which is caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. This toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Choice A, ricin, typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and organ failure. Choice C, sulfur mustard, causes blistering skin and respiratory issues. Choice D, yersinia pestis, is associated with the plague and presents with fever, chills, weakness, and swollen lymph nodes.
The nurse is developing a series of childbirth preparation classes for primigravida women and their significant others. What is the priority expected outcome for these classes?
- A. Participants can identify at least three coping strategies to use during labor.
- B. Participants can list signs of labor and when to come to the hospital.
- C. Participants can describe three pain relief measures to use during labor.
- D. Participants can perform three relaxation techniques to use during labor.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority expected outcome for childbirth preparation classes is for participants to be able to identify coping strategies to use during labor. This is crucial as coping strategies can help women manage pain, stress, and anxiety during childbirth. Choice B is important but does not focus on coping strategies needed during labor. Choice C is relevant but focuses solely on pain relief measures which are a part of coping strategies. Choice D is also relevant but does not encompass all aspects of coping with labor effectively.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?
- A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Constipation.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.
A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with pancreatitis. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Nausea and vomiting.
- B. Epigastric pain radiating to the back.
- C. Temperature of 102°F (38.9°C).
- D. Mild jaundice.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 102°F (38.9°C) is the most important assessment finding to report to the healthcare provider in a client with pancreatitis and a history of alcoholism. Fever in this context can indicate infection, which is a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are common symptoms of pancreatitis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Epigastric pain radiating to the back (choice B) is a classic symptom of pancreatitis and should be addressed, but a fever takes precedence. Mild jaundice (choice D) may be present in pancreatitis but is not as urgent as a high temperature signaling possible infection.