Nokea
The nurse is caring for a patient who has had severe vomiting. The patient's serum sodium level is 130 mEq/L. The nurse will expect the patient's provider to order which treatment?
- A. Diuretic therapy
- B. Intravenous hypertonic 5% saline
- C. Intravenous normal saline 0.9%
- D. Oral sodium supplements
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient has hyponatremia with a serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L. For a serum sodium level between 125 and 135 mEq/L, the appropriate treatment is intravenous normal saline 0.9%. Normal saline helps to increase the sodium content in the vascular fluid. Diuretic therapy would exacerbate sodium and fluid depletion, which is not suitable for a patient already dehydrated from severe vomiting. Intravenous hypertonic 5% saline is typically reserved for severe hyponatremia with a serum sodium level below 120 mEq/L. Oral sodium supplements are not feasible in this case as the patient is vomiting and may not be able to tolerate oral intake easily.
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A client with a family history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Nocturia
- B. Flank pain
- C. Increased abdominal girth
- D. B & C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients with PKD commonly present with flank pain and increased abdominal girth due to abdominal distention caused by cysts. Bloody urine is also a common symptom due to tissue damage from PKD. Nocturia and dysuria are not typical manifestations of PKD. Constipation is not directly associated with PKD. Therefore, the correct choices are flank pain and increased abdominal girth, making option D the correct answer.
A healthcare professional reviews the allergy list of a client scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which client allergy should prompt urgent contact with the healthcare provider?
- A. Seafood
- B. Penicillin
- C. Bee stings
- D. Red food dye
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients with seafood allergies should alert healthcare professionals to urgently contact the healthcare provider before an intravenous urography. The standard dyes used in this procedure can trigger severe allergic reactions in individuals with seafood allergies. Penicillin, bee stings, and red food dye allergies do not pose a direct threat during intravenous urography, making them less critical for immediate intervention.
The patient will begin taking doxycycline to treat an infection. When should the nurse plan to give this medication?
- A. 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal.
- B. with an antacid to minimize GI irritation.
- C. with food to improve absorption.
- D. with small sips of water.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Doxycycline is a lipid-soluble tetracycline that is better absorbed when taken with milk products and food. Taking doxycycline with food helps improve its absorption. It should not be taken on an empty stomach, as this can decrease its effectiveness. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of tetracyclines, so they should not be taken together. While it is important to stay hydrated when taking medications, small sips of water are not specifically recommended for doxycycline administration.
The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pre-renal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which condition would the nurse expect to find in the client's recent history?
- A. Pyelonephritis
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Bladder cancer
- D. Kidney stones
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pre-renal acute kidney injury, there is a decrease in perfusion to the kidneys. Myocardial infarction can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, causing pre-renal AKI. Pyelonephritis is an intrinsic/intrarenal cause of AKI involving kidney damage. Bladder cancer and kidney stones are post-renal causes of AKI due to urinary flow obstruction, not related to perfusion issues seen in pre-renal AKI.
A healthcare professional assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of bacterial cystitis?
- A. A 36-year-old female who has never been pregnant
- B. A 42-year-old male who is prescribed cyclophosphamide
- C. A 58-year-old female who is not taking estrogen replacement
- D. A 77-year-old male with mild congestive heart failure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Females are at higher risk of developing bacterial cystitis due to their shorter urethra compared to males. Postmenopausal women not on estrogen replacement therapy are particularly susceptible to cystitis because of changes in vaginal and urethral cells. This increases the risk of bacterial infection. The other options do not have the same level of risk as the postmenopausal woman not using hormone replacement therapy. A never-pregnant middle-aged woman does not have the same increased risk as a postmenopausal woman with hormonal changes.