HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet

HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet Related

Review HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet related questions and content

A postpartum client who is Rh-negative refuses to receive RhoGAM after the delivery of an infant who is Rh-positive. Which information should the nurse provide this client?

  • A. RhoGAM prevents maternal antibody formation for future Rh-positive babies.
  • B. RhoGAM is not necessary unless all of her pregnancies are Rh-positive.
  • C. The Rh-positive factor from the fetus threatens her blood cells.
  • D. The mother should receive RhoGAM when the baby is Rh-negative.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative individuals after exposure to Rh-positive blood to prevent the development of antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive babies during subsequent pregnancies. By refusing RhoGAM after the delivery of an Rh-positive infant, the mother risks developing these antibodies, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future pregnancies with Rh-positive babies. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that receiving RhoGAM prevents the formation of maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood, safeguarding the health of future babies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because RhoGAM is necessary after exposure to Rh-positive blood, regardless of the Rh status of future pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately convey the purpose of RhoGAM administration. Choice D is incorrect because RhoGAM is specifically given after exposure to Rh-positive blood, not when the baby is Rh-negative.

You may also like to solve these questions

A two-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

  • A. Determine the pulse deficit
  • B. Administer the scheduled dose
  • C. Calculate the safe dose range
  • D. Review the serum digoxin level
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the scheduled dose of digoxin. A heart rate of 128 bpm in a two-year-old child with heart failure falls within the safe range for digoxin administration. It indicates that the child's heart rate is not excessively low, which could be a concern for administering digoxin. Therefore, proceeding with the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is already obtained. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not required as the heart rate is within the safe range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the heart rate indicates that administering the next dose is appropriate.

A full-term infant is transferred to the nursery from labor and delivery. Which information is most important for the LPN/LVN to receive when planning immediate care for the newborn?

  • A. Length of labor and method of delivery.
  • B. Infant's condition at birth and treatment received.
  • C. Feeding method chosen by the parents.
  • D. History of drugs given to the mother during labor.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a full-term infant is transferred to the nursery, the most crucial information for the LPN/LVN to receive for immediate care planning is the infant's condition at birth and any treatments received. This data helps in determining the initial care needs and monitoring requirements for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical as the infant's condition at birth and treatment received. The length of labor and method of delivery may provide background information but may not be as essential for immediate care planning. The feeding method chosen by the parents and the history of drugs given to the mother during labor are important but do not take precedence over knowing the infant's condition and treatment received.

A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in the client's nursing care plan?

  • A. Assess temperature every hour.
  • B. Allow liberal family visitation.
  • C. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
  • D. Keep an airway at the bedside.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the case of eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep an airway at the bedside. Eclampsia is associated with a high risk of convulsions, and having an airway readily available is crucial for prompt intervention in the event of seizures. Assessing temperature, allowing family visitation, and monitoring vital signs are important aspects of care but ensuring airway patency takes precedence in this situation to manage potential complications and ensure the client's safety.

The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?

  • A. Emptying the bladder during delivery is difficult because of the position of the presenting fetal part.
  • B. An over-distended bladder could be traumatized during labor as well as prolong the progress of labor.
  • C. Urine specimens for glucose and protein must be obtained at certain intervals throughout labor.
  • D. Frequent voiding minimizes the need for catheterization, which increases the chance of bladder infection.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.

Which intervention is most helpful in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains'?

  • A. Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen.
  • B. Using a breast pump.
  • C. Massaging the abdomen.
  • D. Giving oxytocic medications.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen is the most helpful intervention in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains.' This position provides counter-pressure and support to the uterus, helping to alleviate discomfort and promote uterine involution. Choice B, using a breast pump, is not effective in relieving afterpains as it focuses on milk expression. Massaging the abdomen (Choice C) may help with discomfort but does not provide the same level of support as lying prone with a pillow. Giving oxytocic medications (Choice D) is not typically the first-line intervention for afterpains unless there are specific medical indications.

Copyright © 2025 Nokea. All rights reserved.