Nokea
A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
- A. Neutralizes stomach acid
- B. Decreases gastric acid secretion
- C. Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid
- D. Improves gastric motility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers, shielding them from stomach acid and promoting healing. Choice A, neutralizing stomach acid, is incorrect as sucralfate does not neutralize acid but acts as a physical barrier. Choice B, decreasing gastric acid secretion, is not the mechanism of action of sucralfate. Choice D, improving gastric motility, is unrelated to sucralfate's action on peptic ulcers.
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A 2-year-old child with laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) is fussy and restless in the oxygen tent. The oxygen level in the tent is 25%, and blood gases are normal. What would be the correct action by the nurse?
- A. Restrain the child in the tent and notify the health care provider.
- B. Increase the oxygen concentration in the tent.
- C. Take the child out of the tent and into the playroom.
- D. Ask the mother for help in comforting the child.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The child with LTB should be placed in the mist tent with 30% oxygen. Restlessness is caused by poor oxygenation. The child should not be taken out of the oxygenated tent. While the mother could be asked to help comfort the child, and the health care provider may be notified, the priority is to set the oxygen at the correct level.
The cognitive impairment is classified into four levels based on the intelligence quotient (IQ). How is a child with an IQ of 45 classified?
- A. Within the normal low range
- B. Educable
- C. Trainable
- D. Severe
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A child with an IQ of 45 is classified as 'Trainable' in the context of cognitive impairment levels. This category is determined by an IQ range of 35 to 55. Choice A ('Within the normal low range') is incorrect as an IQ of 45 falls within the range associated with the 'Trainable' level, not the 'Normal low range.' Choice B ('Educable') is incorrect because this classification typically corresponds to individuals with slightly higher IQs that allow for academic progress with support. Choice D ('Severe') is incorrect as it does not align with the IQ level of 45, which falls within the 'Trainable' category.
A client with Addison's disease started taking hydrocortisone in a divided daily dose last week. It is most important for the nurse to monitor which serum laboratory value?
- A. Osmolarity
- B. Glucose
- C. Albumin
- D. Platelets
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glucose. Hydrocortisone can lead to increased blood glucose levels, so monitoring glucose is crucial to assess for hyperglycemia, a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring osmolarity (choice A) is not typically indicated in this scenario. Albumin (choice C) and platelets (choice D) are not directly affected by hydrocortisone therapy and are not the primary focus of monitoring in this case.
A female client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is admitted with a fractured left femur which is immobilized using a fracture traction splint in preparation for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The nurse determines that her distal pulses are diminished in the left foot. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)
- A. Verify pedal pulses using a doppler pulse device.
- B. Monitor left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure.
- C. Evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is crucial for the nurse to evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg in a client with diminished distal pulses. This assessment helps ensure that the splint is not causing any compromise to circulation. Verifying pulses and monitoring for leg conditions are important interventions but do not directly address the issue with the splint application in this scenario, making them less relevant.
In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?
- A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
- B. Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
- C. Full-thickness tissue loss with visible fat.
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.