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A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Headache
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
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The practical nurse administered 15 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously to a client before they consumed their breakfast at 7:30 AM. At what time is the client at an increased risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?
- A. 8:30 to 11:30 AM
- B. 3:30 to 7:30 PM
- C. 9:30 PM to midnight
- D. 1:00 to 5:00 AM
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Headache
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client is prescribed ondansetron for nausea and vomiting. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Headache
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Constipation
- D. Increased appetite
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Explain the importance of obtaining a blood sample promptly to test for medication toxicity
- B. Consult with the healthcare provider regarding the necessity of an opioid analgesic for pain relief
- C. Recommend the client to discontinue the medication until contacting the healthcare provider
- D. Instruct the client on the use of acetaminophen every 4-6 hours as needed for headaches
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics, and to not discontinue the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.
A client with a history of stroke is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Weight gain
- C. Headache
- D. Dizziness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by thinning the blood. One of the potential side effects of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, blood in the urine or stool, or prolonged bleeding from cuts or gums. Prompt recognition and management of bleeding are essential to prevent complications.