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A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
- B. Provide a complex carbohydrate snack.
- C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously.
- D. Give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.
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What is the most important information for the nurse to provide to a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
- A. Take the medication with food
- B. Avoid foods high in tyramine
- C. Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately
- D. Expect to see improvement within 24 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.' When starting an SSRI, clients should be informed to report any thoughts of self-harm promptly. SSRIs can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially in the early stages of treatment. This information is crucial for the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, avoiding foods high in tyramine, and expecting immediate improvement within 24 hours are not the most critical pieces of information for a client starting on an SSRI.
The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who is reluctant to ambulate. What strategy should the nurse use to encourage the client?
- A. Explain the benefits of ambulation for recovery
- B. Wait for the client to request to walk
- C. Tell the client that walking is necessary for discharge
- D. Offer pain medication before walking
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct strategy for the nurse to encourage the postoperative client to ambulate is to explain the benefits of ambulation for recovery. Educating the client on how ambulation aids in preventing complications and promotes faster recovery can motivate their participation. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for the client to request to walk may lead to delays in mobilization. Choice C is incorrect as it may induce unnecessary fear in the client. Choice D is incorrect as offering pain medication before walking does not address the client's reluctance to ambulate.
The nurse plans to evaluate the effectiveness of several drugs administered by different routes. Arrange the routes of administration from fastest to slowest rate of absorption. 1. Intravenous 2. Sublingual 3. Intramuscular 4. Subcutaneous
- A. 1,2,3,4
- B. 4,3,2,1
- C. 2,4,3,1
- D. 3,4,1,2
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order of routes of administration from fastest to slowest rate of absorption is 1. Intravenous, 2. Sublingual, 3. Intramuscular, 4. Subcutaneous. Intravenous administration provides the fastest absorption as the drug is directly injected into the bloodstream. Sublingual administration allows for rapid absorption through the mucous membranes under the tongue. Intramuscular administration has a slower absorption rate as the drug is injected into the muscle tissue. Subcutaneous administration is the slowest as the drug is injected into the fatty tissue under the skin, leading to a slower absorption compared to the other routes.
The nurse is monitoring a client's intravenous infusion and observes that the venipuncture site is cool to the touch, swollen, and the infusion rate is slower than the prescribed rate. What is the most likely cause of this finding?
- A. The solution's rate is too rapid
- B. The client has phlebitis
- C. The infusion site is infected
- D. The infusion is infiltrated
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An infiltrated IV occurs when fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing coolness, swelling, and a slow infusion rate. Choice A is incorrect because a rapid solution rate does not typically cause these specific symptoms. Choice B, phlebitis, presents with redness, warmth, and tenderness along the vein, not coolness. Choice C, infection, usually manifests with redness, warmth, and possibly purulent drainage, not coolness and swelling.
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). Which laboratory value is most important to monitor?
- A. Phenytoin level
- B. Sodium level
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. White blood cell count
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the phenytoin level is crucial to ensure it is within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Monitoring sodium level is important in clients receiving lithium, not phenytoin. Hemoglobin level and white blood cell count are not directly related to phenytoin therapy monitoring.