Nokea
The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?
- A. Your healthcare provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.
- B. You must ambulate to avoid complications that could cause more discomfort than ambulating.
- C. I know how you feel. You're angry about having to ambulate, but this will help you get well.
- D. I'll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.
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The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs.
- C. Place the client on seizure precautions.
- D. Encourage the client to express feelings about withdrawal.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal, the first intervention the nurse should implement is to monitor the client's vital signs. Vital sign monitoring is crucial to assess for any potential complications such as hypertension, tachycardia, fever, or other signs of autonomic hyperactivity. Administering medication like lorazepam (Ativan) would come after assessing the vital signs to determine the need for pharmacological intervention. Placing the client on seizure precautions is important, but assessing vital signs takes precedence to ensure immediate safety. Encouraging the client to express feelings about withdrawal is a supportive intervention but does not address the immediate physiological risk associated with alcohol withdrawal.
A male client who is participating in an anger management assignment asks if he can make a leather belt in occupational therapy. The client begins pounding the leather vigorously with a mallet to imprint designs on the belt. What defense mechanism is the client using?
- A. Sublimation
- B. Suppression
- C. Regression
- D. Compensation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sublimation. Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities, such as art or work. In this scenario, the client is channeling his anger into a creative and constructive task like making a leather belt. Choice B, Suppression, involves consciously pushing down or hiding feelings rather than expressing them through alternate means. Choice C, Regression, refers to reverting to earlier, immature behaviors when faced with stress. Choice D, Compensation, involves making up for a perceived weakness in one area by excelling in another, which is not demonstrated in the scenario provided.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing withdrawal symptoms from opioid addiction. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Monitor for signs of respiratory depression.
- B. Administer methadone as prescribed.
- C. Provide a calm and quiet environment.
- D. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory depression. During opioid withdrawal, the priority is to monitor the client for respiratory depression as it can be life-threatening. Respiratory depression is a serious concern during opioid withdrawal, and prompt recognition and intervention are crucial. Administering methadone as prescribed (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but is not the priority in this situation. Providing a calm and quiet environment (Choice C) and encouraging fluid intake to prevent dehydration (Choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring for respiratory depression.
An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you
- B. It must be difficult for you to control your anxious feelings
- C. Go to occupational therapy and start a project
- D. You are not in a war area now; this is the United States
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing distressful thoughts secondary to paranoia. Which intervention(s) should the LPN/LVN include in the plan of care? Select one intervention that does not apply.
- A. Avoid laughing when near the client
- B. Whisper when communicating near the client
- C. Increase socialization of the client among peers
- D. Have the client sign a written release of information form
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing distressful thoughts secondary to paranoia is to avoid laughing when near the client. This is important as laughter can be misinterpreted and exacerbate the client's paranoia. Whispering when communicating near the client is not an appropriate intervention as it may lead the client to think secretive or negative information is being shared about them, further fueling their paranoia. Increasing socialization among peers can help provide support and reduce feelings of isolation, while having the client sign a written release of information form is not directly related to managing paranoia and distressful thoughts.