Nokea
A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?
- A. Providing cholesterol screening
- B. Teaching about a healthy diet
- C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
- D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is giving a change-of-shift report about a client he admitted earlier that day who has pneumonia. Which of the following pieces of information is the priority for the nurse to provide?
- A. Breath sounds
- B. Client's history of smoking
- C. Current medication list
- D. Client's family history of respiratory illness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, assessing breath sounds is crucial as it provides immediate information about the client's respiratory status. Changes in breath sounds could indicate complications like fluid accumulation or worsening pneumonia. While the client's history of smoking (Choice B), current medication list (Choice C), and family history of respiratory illness (Choice D) are important factors to consider, they are not as urgent or directly related to the client's immediate condition as assessing breath sounds.
At 0100 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Stay with the client and offer assistance with relaxation techniques
- B. Assess the client's pain level and administer pain medication if needed
- C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
- D. Encourage the client to engage in a quiet, non-stimulating activity until feeling sleepy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: At 0100 on the client's second postoperative night, the nurse should address the client's inability to sleep. Providing a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic is appropriate in this situation to help the client rest. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the room and closing the door does not directly address the client's sleep concern. Choice B is not the priority at this moment since the client's main issue is insomnia, not pain. Choice D, while encouraging a non-stimulating activity, does not provide immediate relief for the client's sleeplessness as a sedative-hypnotic would.
The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?
- A. Lymphedema and nerve palsy
- B. Hearing loss and ataxia
- C. Headaches and vomiting
- D. Abdominal mass and weakness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Neuroblastoma, a common solid tumor in children, often presents with symptoms related to the mass effect it causes. Abdominal mass and weakness are classic signs of neuroblastoma due to the tumor originating in the adrenal glands near the kidneys and potentially compressing nearby structures. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more common in conditions affecting the central nervous system rather than neuroblastoma. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are nonspecific symptoms and are less commonly linked to neuroblastoma compared to the characteristic abdominal findings.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer metoprolol 200 mg PO daily. The medication available is metoprolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 0.5 tablet
- D. 4 tablets
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To administer 200 mg of metoprolol using 100 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet contains 100 mg of metoprolol, so 2 tablets will provide the required 200 mg dose. Choice A is incorrect because 1 tablet would only provide 100 mg, which is insufficient. Choice C is incorrect as fractions of tablets are usually not used in practice to ensure accurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as it would result in an overdose, providing 400 mg instead of the prescribed 200 mg.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Morning stiffness
- B. Joint deformities
- C. Weight loss
- D. Fever
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fever in a client with rheumatoid arthritis can indicate an underlying infection or a more serious systemic involvement, such as vasculitis or inflammation of internal organs. These conditions can lead to serious complications and require immediate medical attention. Joint deformities and morning stiffness are common manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis itself and may not be indicative of an acute issue. Weight loss can be seen in chronic inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis but is not as concerning as fever, which suggests an acute process requiring prompt evaluation and intervention.