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A nurse manager is developing strategies to care for the increasing number of clients who have obesity. Which of the following actions should the nurse include as a primary health care strategy?
- A. Collaborating with providers to perform obesity screenings during routine office visits.
- B. Ensuring the availability of specialized beds in rehabilitation centers for clients who have obesity.
- C. Providing specialized intraoperative training in surgical treatments for obesity.
- D. Educating acute care nurses about postoperative complications related to obesity.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Collaborating with providers to perform obesity screenings during routine office visits. This is a primary health care strategy as it focuses on prevention and early detection, which are key components of managing obesity. Screening during routine visits allows for timely identification of obesity and related health risks, enabling early intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not align with primary health care strategies for obesity. Ensuring availability of specialized beds, providing intraoperative training, and educating about postoperative complications are more focused on secondary and tertiary levels of care, rather than primary prevention and early detection.
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A client with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low-protein diet. Which food should the healthcare provider advise the client to limit?
- A. Chicken breast
- B. Apple
- C. Rice
- D. Banana
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chicken breast. In chronic kidney disease, a low-protein diet is often recommended to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Chicken breast is a high-protein food that should be limited in such diets to help manage the progression of kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are low in protein and are generally suitable for individuals following a low-protein diet. Apples, rice, and bananas can be included in moderation as part of a balanced diet for individuals with chronic kidney disease.
The healthcare professional caring for a patient who is immobile frequently checks for impaired skin integrity. What is the rationale for this action?
- A. Inadequate blood flow leads to decreased tissue ischemia.
- B. Patients with limited caloric intake develop thicker skin.
- C. Pressure reduces circulation to affected tissue.
- D. Verbalization of skin care needs is decreased.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The rationale behind checking for impaired skin integrity in an immobile patient is that pressure reduces circulation to the affected tissue. Prolonged pressure on specific body parts can lead to reduced blood flow to those areas, causing tissue damage and potentially leading to pressure ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because inadequate blood flow causing decreased tissue ischemia, limited caloric intake leading to thicker skin, and decreased verbalization of skin care needs are not directly related to the rationale for checking for impaired skin integrity in immobile patients.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer metoprolol 200 mg PO daily. The medication available is metoprolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 0.5 tablet
- D. 4 tablets
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To administer 200 mg of metoprolol using 100 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet contains 100 mg of metoprolol, so 2 tablets will provide the required 200 mg dose. Choice A is incorrect because 1 tablet would only provide 100 mg, which is insufficient. Choice C is incorrect as fractions of tablets are usually not used in practice to ensure accurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as it would result in an overdose, providing 400 mg instead of the prescribed 200 mg.
A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the provider assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity?
- A. 100% oxygen via partial rebreathing mask
- B. 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula
- C. 4 liters per minute via simple mask
- D. 6 liters per minute via face mask
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask, there is a higher risk for oxygen toxicity due to the higher concentration of oxygen delivered. This client should be assessed most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to result in oxygen toxicity compared to 100% oxygen delivery via a partial rebreathing mask.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB). Which type of isolation precautions should the healthcare provider implement?
- A. Droplet precautions
- B. Airborne precautions
- C. Contact precautions
- D. Standard precautions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB), airborne precautions should be implemented. Tuberculosis is spread through the air via droplet nuclei, requiring the use of airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of the infection. Droplet precautions are used for diseases spread by large respiratory droplets, such as influenza or pertussis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread through direct contact, such as MRSA. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the transmission of infections from blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.