A client who has just had a mastectomy has a closed wound suction device (hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?
- A. Collapsing the device whenever it is 1/2 to 2/3 full of air.
- B. Emptying the device every 4 hours.
- C. Replacing the device every 24 hours.
- D. Keeping the device above the level of the surgical site.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Collapsing the device when it is 1/2 to 2/3 full of air is the correct nursing action to ensure proper operation of a closed wound suction device (hemovac). This action maintains negative pressure, which is essential for proper suction and drainage of the wound. Emptying the device every 4 hours (Choice B) is not necessary as the focus should be on collapsing it appropriately. Replacing the device every 24 hours (Choice C) is not a standard practice unless indicated by the healthcare provider. Keeping the device above the level of the surgical site (Choice D) is not necessary for the device's proper operation; collapsing it to maintain negative pressure is the key action.
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The client is receiving discharge instructions for a new antihypertensive medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will stop taking the medication if I experience dizziness.
- B. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
- C. I will avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. I will rise slowly from a sitting to a standing position.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Stopping antihypertensive medication abruptly can lead to rebound hypertension, which can be dangerous. Clients should never discontinue their medication without consulting their healthcare provider first. Choice B is correct because monitoring blood pressure is essential when taking antihypertensive medication to ensure it stays within the target range. Choice C is correct as alcohol can potentiate the hypotensive effects of antihypertensive medications. Choice D is correct as orthostatic hypotension can occur, so rising slowly helps prevent dizziness and falls. Therefore, choice A is the statement that indicates a need for further teaching.
During an assessment, a client receiving tube feedings via NG tube shows signs of nasal mucosa irritation. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Irritation of nasal mucosa
- C. Sodium 144 mEq/L
- D. Loose stools
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Irritation of nasal mucosa is a crucial finding that the nurse should report to the provider as it suggests potential complications with NG tube placement, such as improper positioning or mucosal damage. High potassium levels (Choice A) can be concerning but are not directly related to NG tube placement issues. Normal sodium levels (Choice C) and loose stools (Choice D) are common occurrences in clients receiving tube feedings and are not typically indicative of immediate complications that require urgent reporting.
A client is receiving discharge teaching about a new prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should avoid foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
- B. I will check my pulse before taking the medication.
- C. I should avoid taking antacids simultaneously with this medication.
- D. I will take the medication at the same time every day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because clients taking digoxin should avoid foods high in potassium. High potassium levels can potentiate the effects of digoxin, leading to toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements regarding digoxin administration. Checking the pulse before taking the medication helps monitor for signs of digoxin toxicity. Avoiding taking antacids simultaneously prevents interactions that may reduce digoxin absorption. Taking the medication at the same time every day helps maintain a consistent blood level, ensuring optimal therapeutic effects.
A healthcare professional is using the I-SBAR communication tool to provide the client's provider with information about the client. The healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status in which portion of the report?
- A. Assessment
- B. Situation
- C. Background
- D. Recommendation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the I-SBAR communication tool, the 'Assessment' portion is where the healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status. This section includes the current patient information, such as the client's pain level, to provide a comprehensive view of the client's condition. Choice B ('Situation') typically involves a brief summary of the client's problem or reason for the communication. Choice C ('Background') usually covers the client's medical history and background information. Choice D ('Recommendation') focuses on the healthcare professional's suggestions or requests regarding the client's care plan, which may include pain management strategies but not the current pain status.
A client asks a nurse about the purpose of advance directives.
- A. Indicate a form of treatment a client is willing to accept.
- B. Specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment.
- C. Determine the client's daily medication schedule.
- D. Outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directives serve to indicate the forms of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or decline in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. This legal document allows individuals to make decisions about their future healthcare. Choice B is incorrect as advance directives do not specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment. Choice C is incorrect as advance directives do not determine the client's daily medication schedule; this is typically addressed in a medication administration record. Choice D is incorrect as advance directives do not outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage, but rather focus on healthcare treatment preferences.