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A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has heart failure. The client has gained weight since her last visit, and her ankles are edematous. Which of the following findings by the nurse is another clinical manifestation of fluid volume excess?
- A. Bounding pulse
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Dry mucous membranes
- D. Weak pulse
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A bounding pulse is indicative of fluid volume excess. In this case, the client's weight gain and edematous ankles already suggest fluid volume overload. A bounding pulse occurs due to increased blood volume and pressure. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of fluid volume excess. Decreased blood pressure, dry mucous membranes, and weak pulse are more commonly associated with conditions such as dehydration or hypovolemia, where there is a decrease in fluid volume rather than an excess.
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A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the provider assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity?
- A. 100% oxygen via partial rebreathing mask
- B. 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula
- C. 4 liters per minute via simple mask
- D. 6 liters per minute via face mask
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask, there is a higher risk for oxygen toxicity due to the higher concentration of oxygen delivered. This client should be assessed most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to result in oxygen toxicity compared to 100% oxygen delivery via a partial rebreathing mask.
A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is being assessed. Which symptom would be most concerning?
- A. Headache
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Dizziness
- D. Chest pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chest pain in a client with hypertension is the most concerning symptom as it may indicate a myocardial infarction or other serious cardiac event related to hypertension. Immediate intervention is required to address potential life-threatening conditions. Headache, blurred vision, and dizziness are common symptoms associated with hypertension but are not typically indicative of an acute cardiac event requiring urgent attention.
An assistive personnel says to the nurse, "This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. I get angry, and I think that the client is doing it just to get attention. I think we should put adult diapers on her." Which is the appropriate nursing response?
- A. You should report this to the supervisor
- B. It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress
- C. Diapers are the best solution
- D. The client's condition is not your concern
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is 'It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.' In this situation, the nurse should acknowledge the emotional impact of caregiving on the assistive personnel and address it professionally. Choice A is incorrect because reporting to the supervisor may not directly address the emotional concerns raised. Choice C is incorrect because immediately resorting to diapers without further assessment or intervention is not the most appropriate solution. Choice D is incorrect as the client's well-being and care are a shared responsibility among healthcare team members.
When providing oral care to an unconscious patient, what action should the nurse take to protect the patient from injury?
- A. Moisten the mouth using lemon-glycerin sponges.
- B. Hold the patient's mouth open with gloved fingers.
- C. Use foam swabs to help remove plaque.
- D. Suction the oral cavity.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When caring for an unconscious patient, it is crucial to prevent choking and aspiration. Suctioning the oral cavity helps in removing secretions and preventing potential harm. Moisten the mouth using lemon-glycerin sponges may not effectively clear secretions. Holding the patient's mouth open with gloved fingers can cause discomfort and potential harm. Using foam swabs to remove plaque may not address the immediate risk of aspiration.
A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?
- A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
- B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next morning.
- C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
- D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention is to give the missed dose at 1300 and adjust the schedule to administer daily at 1300. This approach ensures that the client receives the correct total daily dose of levofloxacin. Choice A is incorrect because contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form would not address the immediate need to administer the missed dose. Choice B is incorrect as administering the missed dose at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next morning would result in a missed dose for that day. Choice C is not the best course of action as notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report should come after addressing the immediate need to administer the missed dose and adjusting the schedule for future doses.