Nokea
Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention for a client in atrial fibrillation with a rate of 180 beats per minute?
- A. Apply compression stockings
- B. Administer medications to slow the rate
- C. Administer anticoagulants
- D. Monitor urine output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: AF at 180 bpm tanks output meds like beta-blockers or amiodarone slow it, restoring flow, a priority per ABCs over stockings' vein aid. Anticoagulants curb clots later; urine's secondary. Nurses push rate control, steadying this wild heart, a critical fix in this tachycardic storm.
You may also like to solve these questions
Mr Tan, a 50-year-old with hypertension, sees you for routine review. He reports three gout flares in the past two months relieved with three days of Arcoxia 120 mg OM for each episode. You perform some blood tests, which returns the following results: Creatinine 95 umol/L, eGFR >90 mL/min, Uric acid 460 mmol/L, HbA1c 5.4%, Random hypo-count 7.5 mmol/L. He is currently on Amlodipine 10 mg OM. He does not drink alcohol except one glass of wine once or twice a year on special occasions. His BMI is 20.5 kg/m². Which is the most appropriate next step?
- A. Prescribe NSAIDs standby for gout flare
- B. Offer dietary advice and advise regular exercise only
- C. Prescribe prednisolone standby for gout flare
- D. Discuss urate lowering therapy as he has had >2 gout flares in the past year, ideally with colchicine prophylaxis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Three gout flares in two months with uric acid 460 mmol/L (hyperuricemia) indicate frequent attacks warranting urate-lowering therapy (ULT) like allopurinol, per guidelines (e.g., ACR), especially with >2 flares yearly. Colchicine prophylaxis reduces flare risk during ULT initiation. NSAIDs or prednisolone treat acute flares but don't address recurrence. Diet/exercise alone won't suffice with this frequency and uric acid level. ULT discussion aligns with chronic gout management to prevent joint damage, critical for family physicians.
A 66 year old man has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. He has no history of heart disease and diabetes mellitus. His average blood pressure is recorded as 154/82 mmHg. What is the MOST appropriate first line pharmacological therapy?
- A. Angiotensin converting enzyme-inhibitors
- B. Angiotensin receptor blockers
- C. Thiazide diuretics
- D. Calcium channel blockers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: New hypertension at 66, 154/82 no heart or sugar issues thiazide diuretics kick off gentle, effective control, especially in older adults. ACE inhibitors or ARBs fit if kidneys or diabetes pop up; calcium blockers work but aren't first; beta blockers lag unless heart history. Nurses lean on thiazides cheap, proven for this chronic pressure nudge, keeping it simple and safe.
A male client is presenting with radiating chest pain. Which of the following would the nurse recognize as indicators that an acute myocardial infarction may be occurring?
- A. Positive troponin markers
- B. ST elevation on EKG on two contiguous leads
- C. Pain relieved with rest
- D. Diaphoresis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: MI's hallmark ST elevation in contiguous leads flags acute infarction, showing transmural injury, a nurse's red alert for cath lab prep. Troponins rise later, confirming damage. Rest-relieved pain fits angina, not MI. Diaphoresis tags along but isn't diagnostic alone. EKG's immediacy nails this, driving urgent care in this chest pain crisis.
Which of the following is a treatment option for a client with infective endocarditis?
- A. Bedrest
- B. Antimicrobials
- C. Diet modification
- D. Antihypertensive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Infective endocarditis bacterial valve infection needs antimicrobials to kill pathogens like *Streptococcus*, the root cause, halting damage and sepsis. Bedrest aids recovery but doesn't treat. Diet tweaks support health, not infection. Antihypertensives manage pressure, irrelevant to endocarditis's microbial core. Nurses anticipate antibiotics, often IV for weeks, targeting the source, a priority to save valves and lives in this high-mortality condition, aligning with infectious disease protocols.
A government initiative to reduce the effects of fatigue in the workforce has recently been rolled out. As anaesthetic lead, you are asked by the chief executive of your institution to develop strategies to reduce fatigue in your department. Appropriate strategies are likely to include:
- A. Changing the frequency of night shifts on the on-call rota from every 3 days to every 2 weeks.
- B. Including a section in the trainee's handbook on the signs of fatigue, along with prevention and management strategies.
- C. Acquiring a departmental exercise bike.
- D. Reducing the number of night shifts worked by colleagues over 55 years of age.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fatigue mitigation in anaesthesia enhances safety. Reducing night shift frequency from every 3 days to every 2 weeks allows recovery (per sleep science, 48-72 hours post-night shift), significantly cutting cumulative fatigue versus less impactful measures. A handbook educates on fatigue signs (e.g., yawning, errors) and strategies (naps, caffeine), but it's passive. An exercise bike offers minor alertness boosts but not sustained relief. Age-based shift reduction addresses older workers' recovery needs, yet evidence favors roster spacing for all. Refreshments help minimally. Frequent night shifts disrupt circadian rhythms and sleep homeostasis, amplifying error risk (e.g., medication misdosing); a 2-week gap aligns with occupational health guidelines for sustained performance.