Nokea
A client has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.
- A. Inject 5 units of air into the bottle of regular insulin
- B. Withdraw the correct dose of NPH insulin from the bottle
- C. Inject 10 units of air into the bottle of NPH insulin
- D. Withdraw the correct dose of regular insulin from the bottle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct order of steps for this procedure is to first inject air into the NPH insulin bottle to prevent vacuum formation. After injecting air into the NPH insulin, the next step is to withdraw the correct dose of regular insulin from its bottle. This sequence ensures that the regular insulin is drawn after the NPH insulin, preventing contamination and ensuring accurate dosing. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because air should be injected into the NPH insulin first, not the regular insulin, and the doses should be withdrawn in the appropriate order to maintain the integrity and potency of each insulin type.
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A nurse receives a report about a client who has 0.9% sodium chloride infusing IV at 125 mL/hr. When the nurse performs the initial assessment, they note that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hrs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the IV tubing for obstruction
- B. Increase the infusion rate
- C. Administer a bolus of fluid
- D. Replace the IV catheter
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. By doing this, the nurse can assess if there is any blockage or kink in the tubing that is impeding the flow of the IV solution. This step is crucial as it helps in identifying the reason for the inadequate infusion rate. Increasing the infusion rate (Choice B) without first checking for obstructions can lead to potential complications if there is a blockage. Administering a bolus of fluid (Choice C) may not be appropriate without addressing the cause of the decreased infusion rate. Similarly, replacing the IV catheter (Choice D) is not the initial priority unless obstruction is ruled out and other troubleshooting measures have been taken.
A client is admitted to a voluntary hospital mental health unit due to suicidal ideation. The client has been on the unit for 2 days and now states, 'I demand to be released now!' The appropriate action is for the nurse to:
- A. You cannot be released because you are still suicidal.
- B. You can be released only if you sign a no-suicide contract.
- C. Let's discuss your decision to leave and then we can prepare you for discharge.
- D. You have a right to sign out as soon as we get an order from the healthcare provider's discharge order.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to engage the client in a discussion about their decision to leave and then prepare them for discharge. This approach allows the nurse to assess the client's current state, address concerns, and plan for a safe discharge. Option A is incorrect because it does not involve a therapeutic communication approach and may escalate the situation. Option B is incorrect as it places a condition on the client for release, which is not recommended in this situation. Option D is incorrect as it does not prioritize the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their care.
A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?
- A. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level.
- B. Assess the client's apical pulse.
- C. Check for jugular vein distention.
- D. Measure the client's urine output.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.
A nurse in a long-term care facility is admitting a client who is incontinent and smells strongly of urine. His partner, who has been caring for him at home, is embarrassed and apologizes for the smell. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. "It must be difficult to care for someone who is confined to bed."
- B. "It is important to keep the client clean to avoid infections."
- C. "I understand that this is challenging; let's work together to ensure comfort."
- D. "The smell is quite strong; we need to address this immediately."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C: "I understand that this is challenging; let's work together to ensure comfort." This response acknowledges the difficulty the partner is facing, shows empathy, and offers to collaborate in providing care. Choice A is incorrect because it does not directly address the partner's feelings of embarrassment or offer support. Choice B, while true, does not address the partner's emotional state and may come across as directive rather than supportive. Choice D is also incorrect as it focuses solely on the smell without addressing the partner's emotions or offering assistance in managing the situation with empathy.
The healthcare provider is planning care for a 14-year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive priority in the plan?
- A. Administer antibiotic therapy for 10 days
- B. Teach the client isometric exercises for legs
- C. Assess movement and sensation of extremities
- D. Assist the client to stand up at the bedside within the first 24 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing movement and sensation of extremities is the priority after scoliosis corrective surgery as it helps in early detection of any neurological deficits that may have occurred during the procedure. This assessment is essential for prompt intervention if any issues are identified. Administering antibiotics, teaching exercises, and assisting the client to stand up are important aspects of care but assessing neurological status takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and recovery.