Nokea
What is the main objective of the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI)?
- A. Provide healthcare to all individuals
- B. Reduce child mortality
- C. Eliminate vaccine-preventable diseases
- D. Promote healthy lifestyles
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The main objective of the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) is to eliminate vaccine-preventable diseases. While providing healthcare to all individuals and reducing child mortality are important goals, the primary focus of EPI is specifically on preventing diseases through immunization. Promoting healthy lifestyles, although beneficial, is not the primary aim of the EPI.
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Which of the following statements about breastfeeding is correct?
- A. Breastfeeding within 30 minutes after birth can stimulate breastmilk production
- B. Breastmilk should be started 24 hours after delivery
- C. Breastmilk given exclusively for the first 4 to 6 months of life helps avoid introduction of infection
- D. Breastfeeding should be done as often as the baby wants
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement about breastfeeding is that breastmilk given exclusively for the first 4 to 6 months of life helps avoid the introduction of infection. This practice is recommended by health experts for optimal infant health. Choice A is incorrect because breastfeeding should ideally start within the first hour after birth to stimulate breastmilk production. Choice B is incorrect because breastmilk should be initiated as soon as possible after delivery, not after 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect because while feeding on demand is generally encouraged, it should also follow a schedule to ensure adequate nutrition and growth for the baby.
A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Constipation
- B. Hypertension
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.
An 82-year-old client is prescribed eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. What assessment is needed before the nurse begins teaching proper administration of the medication?
- A. Determine the client's manual dexterity
- B. The client's manual dexterity
- C. Proximity to health care services
- D. Ability to use visual assistive devices
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the client's manual dexterity is crucial before teaching the administration of eye drops. Manual dexterity is essential for the proper instillation of eye drops. If the client has limited manual dexterity, alternative methods of administration may be necessary. The other choices, such as determining third-party payment plan, proximity to health care services, and ability to use visual assistive devices, are not directly related to the immediate need for assessing manual dexterity for the proper administration of eye drops.
Which topic should be included in planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community?
- A. Safety measures in the home.
- B. Adult immunization program.
- C. Rehabilitation after surgery.
- D. Vision and hearing screening.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community, vision and hearing screening should be included. This is crucial as sensory impairments are common among older adults and early detection through screening can help in preventing further complications. Safety measures in the home, adult immunization programs, and rehabilitation after surgery are important but fall more under primary or tertiary prevention strategies rather than secondary prevention, which focuses on early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of health conditions.
What title should be given to this role in occupational health? An advanced practice nurse who provides workers with primary care services with an emphasis on the diagnosis and management of common acute illnesses/injuries and stable chronic diseases.
- A. case manager
- B. nurse consultant
- C. clinician nurse practitioner
- D. health promotion specialist
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct title for this role is a clinician nurse practitioner as they provide primary care services, including diagnosing and managing illnesses. Choice A, case manager, typically focuses on coordinating care and services for patients. Choice B, nurse consultant, involves providing expert advice and guidance. Choice D, health promotion specialist, concentrates on promoting health and preventing diseases rather than diagnosing and treating illnesses.