Nokea
When a client has their 'fight or flight' system activated, which below is a manifestation of that?
- A. Decreased blood pressure
- B. Decreased heart rate
- C. Decreased respiration rate
- D. Increased glucose levels
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased glucose levels.' When the 'fight or flight' system is activated, the body releases glucose to provide energy for the impending response. This increase in glucose levels helps fuel the body's reaction to the perceived threat or stressor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because during the 'fight or flight' response, blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration rate typically increase to prepare the body to confront or flee from the perceived danger.
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A patient with hypogonadism is being treated with testosterone gel. What application instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
- B. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
- C. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.
- D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Testosterone gel should be applied to the chest or upper arms and allowed to dry completely before dressing to avoid transfer to others. Applying the gel to the face, neck, genitals, scalp, or back is not recommended as these areas may lead to unintentional transfer to others, inappropriate absorption, or potential side effects. Choice A is incorrect as applying the gel to the face and neck can lead to unwanted transfer. Choice C is incorrect as applying the gel to the genitals is not the recommended site for application. Choice D is incorrect as the scalp and back are not appropriate sites for applying testosterone gel.
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Pulmonary embolism
- B. Gastrointestinal bleeding
- C. Hemorrhagic stroke
- D. Renal insufficiency
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, pulmonary embolism. In a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) receiving anticoagulant therapy, the nurse should monitor for pulmonary embolism, as it is a serious complication. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot dislodges from the veins and travels to the lungs, potentially causing life-threatening consequences. Choices B, gastrointestinal bleeding, C, hemorrhagic stroke, and D, renal insufficiency, are not directly associated with deep vein thrombosis or anticoagulant therapy. While these complications may occur in other situations, they are not the primary concern when managing a client with a history of DVT.
A patient has been prescribed conjugated estrogens for the treatment of menopausal symptoms. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. Increase the intake of calcium-rich foods.
- B. Decrease the intake of high-fat foods.
- C. Avoid the use of tobacco.
- D. Avoid exposure to sunlight.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase the intake of calcium-rich foods. Patients taking conjugated estrogens should increase their intake of calcium-rich foods to help prevent osteoporosis. Estrogen therapy can lead to an increased risk of osteoporosis, so ensuring an adequate intake of calcium is crucial. Choices B, decreasing high-fat foods, and C, avoiding tobacco, are general health recommendations but not directly related to the prescription of conjugated estrogens. Choice D, avoiding exposure to sunlight, is not a direct concern when taking conjugated estrogens.
A healthcare provider is explaining to a patient the difference between primary and secondary immunodeficiency disorders and explains that secondary immunodeficiencies (select ONE that does not apply):
- A. May develop after viral infections
- B. Develop before birth
- C. May develop following immunosuppressive therapies
- D. Are caused by superimposed conditions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct statements about secondary immunodeficiencies are that they may develop after viral infections, following immunosuppressive therapies, and are caused by superimposed conditions. Choice B ('Develop before birth') is incorrect because secondary immunodeficiencies do not develop before birth. They are acquired later in life. Therefore, the correct answers are A, C, and D.
A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:
- A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
- B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
- C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
- D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.