ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

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A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

  • A. Take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain.
  • B. If pain is not relieved, take another tablet in 10 minutes.
  • C. You can take up to five tablets in 15 minutes.
  • D. Swallow the tablet with water.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain. If the pain is not relieved after 5 minutes, the client should call 911 and take a second tablet. Taking more than the recommended dose can lead to serious side effects, and swallowing the tablet would not provide the rapid effect needed in cases of chest pain. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the standard protocol for nitroglycerin use in treating angina. Choice B is incorrect as the second tablet should be taken after 5 minutes, not 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as taking up to five tablets in 15 minutes is excessive and can result in serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption, not swallowed.

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While caring for a client on long-term aspirin therapy, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

  • A. Hemorrhagic stroke
  • B. Thromboembolic stroke
  • C. Iron deficiency anemia
  • D. Neutropenia
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Long-term aspirin therapy can increase the risk of hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which can lead to bleeding complications. Aspirin inhibits platelet function, potentially causing bleeding in the brain and increasing the risk of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice B, thromboembolic stroke, is incorrect because aspirin therapy is actually used to prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Choices C and D, iron deficiency anemia and neutropenia, are not directly associated with long-term aspirin therapy.

A client has been prescribed Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

  • A. Hyperkalemia
  • B. Hypoglycemia
  • C. Bradycardia
  • D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can lead to hyperkalemia by inhibiting the action of aldosterone. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's potassium levels to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias.

Incorrect Options Rationale:
- Option B, Hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan.
- Option C, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Valsartan use.
- Option D, Hypercalcemia, is not a known adverse effect of Valsartan; instead, Valsartan can lead to hyperkalemia.

A client is prescribed Omeprazole for managing heartburn. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

  • A. Take this medication at bedtime.
  • B. This medication decreases the production of gastric acid.
  • C. Take this medication 2 hours after eating.
  • D. This medication can cause hyperkalemia.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should educate the client that Omeprazole works by reducing the production of gastric acid through inhibiting the enzyme responsible for its production. This action helps in managing heartburn and related symptoms effectively. Choice A is incorrect because Omeprazole is usually taken before eating. Choice C is incorrect as Omeprazole is typically taken before a meal. Choice D is unrelated to Omeprazole, as it is not associated with causing hyperkalemia.

A healthcare professional is caring for four clients who have Peptic Ulcer Disease. The healthcare professional should recognize Misoprostol is contraindicated for which of the following clients?

  • A. A client who is pregnant
  • B. A client who has osteoarthritis
  • C. A client who has a kidney stone
  • D. A client who has a urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy as it can induce labor and potentially lead to harm to the fetus. Therefore, it should not be used in pregnant clients due to its uterotonic effects. For clients with osteoarthritis, kidney stone, or urinary tract infection, Misoprostol is not contraindicated specifically for these conditions.

A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

  • A. Dry oral mucous membranes
  • B. Nausea and vomiting
  • C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
  • D. Anorexia
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

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