Which statement regarding bottle mouth caries requires further teaching?
- A. Caries can be decreased by putting an infant to bed with a bottle of milk or sweetened juice
- B. Eliminating the bedtime bottle or substituting water is recommended
- C. Sugar pools within the oral cavity cause severe decay
- D. It is often seen in children between 18 months and 3 years
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Putting an infant to bed with a bottle of milk or sweetened juice increases the risk of bottle mouth caries rather than decreasing it. This statement requires further teaching as it provides incorrect information. Choice B is correct as eliminating the bedtime bottle or substituting water is recommended to prevent bottle mouth caries. Choice C is also correct as sugar pooling within the oral cavity can indeed cause severe decay. Choice D is correct as bottle mouth caries is often observed in children between 18 months and 3 years.
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What is a common significant side effect of opioid administration?
- A. Euphoria
- B. Diuresis
- C. Constipation
- D. Allergic reactions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Constipation is one of the most common side effects of opioid administration due to the slowing down of gastrointestinal motility. Opioids affect the bowel movements, leading to constipation. Euphoria, while a possible effect, is less common than constipation. Diuresis is not a typical side effect of opioids; instead, urinary retention may occur. Allergic reactions are rare side effects of opioids, with symptoms such as rash, itching, or anaphylaxis.
The nurse is caring for an infant who was born 24 hr ago to a mother who received no prenatal care. The infant is a poor feeder but sucks avidly on his hands. Clinical manifestations also include hyperactive reflexes, tremors, sneezing, and a high-pitched shrill cry. What does the nurse consider as a possible diagnosis for this infant?
- A. Seizure disorder
- B. Narcotic withdrawal
- C. Placental insufficiency
- D. Meconium aspiration syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this case, the infant's symptoms are consistent with narcotic withdrawal. Infants exposed to drugs in utero may display withdrawal symptoms starting around 12 to 24 hours post-birth. The presentation often includes hyperactive reflexes, tremors, sneezing, high-pitched shrill cry, poor feeding, and sucking avidly on hands. Signs such as loose stools, tachycardia, fever, projectile vomiting, sneezing, and generalized sweating are common. These symptoms are not indicative of a seizure disorder. Placental insufficiency typically leads to a small-for-gestational-age child, which is not mentioned in the scenario. Meconium aspiration syndrome primarily presents with respiratory distress, not the symptoms described in this case.
An intravenous line is needed in a school-age child. What medication is an appropriate analgesic for use with this patient?
- A. TAC (tetracaine, epinephrine [Adrenalin], cocaine) 15 minutes before the procedure.
- B. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch at the site of venipuncture.
- C. EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics) immediately before the procedure.
- D. LMX (4% liposomal lidocaine cream) 30 minutes before the procedure.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: LMX is an effective analgesic agent when applied to the skin 30 minutes before a procedure. It eliminates or reduces the pain from most procedures involving skin puncture. TAC provides skin anesthesia about 15 minutes after application to nonintact skin, making it more suitable for wound suturing. Transdermal fentanyl patches are designed for continuous pain control, not rapid pain control needed for a procedure like venipuncture. EMLA, for maximum effectiveness, must be applied approximately 60 minutes before the procedure, making it less suitable for immediate pain relief required for intravenous line placement.
Kimberly is having a checkup before starting kindergarten. The nurse asks her to do the "finger-to-nose test." What is the purpose of this test?
- A. Deep tendon reflexes
- B. Cerebellar function
- C. Sensory discrimination
- D. Ability to follow directions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The finger-to-nose test assesses cerebellar function, which is responsible for balance and coordination. The test evaluates how well the cerebellum controls motor functions and coordination. Choice A, deep tendon reflexes, is incorrect because this test does not assess reflexes but rather cerebellar function. Choice C, sensory discrimination, is incorrect as this test focuses on motor function rather than sensory abilities. Choice D, ability to follow directions, is incorrect since the test primarily assesses motor coordination and not cognitive skills related to following instructions.
A mother reports to the nurse that her 6-year-old child is highly active, irritable, irregular in habits, and adapts slowly to new routines, people, or situations. Which pattern of temperament would best describe the child?
- A. The 'easy' child
- B. The 'difficult' child
- C. The 'slow-to-warm-up' child
- D. The 'fast-to-warm-up' child
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 'difficult' child is the best way to describe the child in this scenario. This temperament is characterized by high activity levels, irritability, irregular habits, and difficulty adapting to changes. Choice A, the 'easy' child, is known for being generally positive and adaptable. Choice C, the 'slow-to-warm-up' child, typically needs time to adapt to new situations but is not necessarily highly active or irritable. Choice D, the 'fast-to-warm-up' child, adapts quickly to new situations, which contrasts with the child's slow adaptation mentioned in the scenario.