A patient has anorexia nervosa. The history shows the patient virtually stopped eating 5 months ago and lost 25% of body weight. The serum potassium is 2.7 mg/dL. Which nursing diagnosis applies?
- A. Adult failure to thrive related to abuse of laxatives, as evidenced by electrolyte imbalances and weight loss
- B. Ineffective health maintenance related to self-induced vomiting, as evidenced by swollen parotid glands and hyperkalemia
- C. Disturbed energy field related to physical exertion in excess of energy produced through caloric intake, as evidenced by weight loss and hyperkalemia
- D. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to refusal to eat, as evidenced by loss of 25% of body weight and hypokalemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to refusal to eat, as evidenced by loss of 25% of body weight and hypokalemia.
Rationale:
1. Anorexia nervosa involves severe restriction of food intake, leading to significant weight loss and malnutrition.
2. The patient's history of virtually stopping eating and losing 25% of body weight aligns with the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition.
3. Hypokalemia (low serum potassium level) is common in patients with anorexia nervosa due to inadequate intake or purging behaviors.
4. The other choices are incorrect because they do not match the patient's specific presentation of anorexia nervosa and hypokalemia.
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Police bring a 63-year-old woman to the emergency room, reporting that her behavior is disorganized and disruptive, that her speech makes little sense, and that she does not seem able to take care of herself. The woman has had elective surgeries at the hospital previously and was seen in the ER last week after a fall; records show no history of similar symptoms or mental illness. The ER physician speaks with the patient but does not examine her medically, diagnoses her with schizophrenia, and orders admission to the inpatient psychiatric unit. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
- A. Ask another physician with more of an interest in psychiatry to also take a look at this patient, explaining that you just want to be as thorough as possible.
- B. Suggest that a psychiatric consult be requested before admitting the patient to a psychiatric unit, to validate the diagnosis and speed the initiation of medication.
- C. Remind the physician that schizophrenia usually develops earlier in life, that such presentations may be caused by medical problems, and suggest a medical work-up.
- D. Note that the patient's blood pressure and respirations were elevated when she arrived, and suggest that they be evaluated before admitting the patient to the psychiatric unit.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it demonstrates critical thinking and patient advocacy. By reminding the physician that schizophrenia typically develops earlier in life and suggesting a medical work-up, the nurse is advocating for a comprehensive approach to ruling out potential medical causes for the patient's symptoms before jumping to a psychiatric diagnosis. This approach aligns with best practices in patient care and ensures that all possible underlying causes are considered and addressed appropriately.
Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the need for a medical work-up to rule out physical causes of the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on validating the diagnosis and initiating medication rather than investigating potential medical issues. Choice D is incorrect as it only addresses the patient's vital signs, overlooking the need for a thorough medical evaluation.
A patient experiencing delirium secondary to corticosteroid toxicity is manifesting paranoid thinking and noisy, assaultive behavior. The patient is currently pacing the hall and shouting. A nurse has placed a call to the physician and is anticipating the following order:
- A. the use of supervised restraints.
- B. a loading dose of phenytoin.
- C. a small dose of prednisone.
- D. an IV dose of thiamine.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: the use of supervised restraints. In this situation, the patient is displaying agitated and assaultive behavior, posing a risk to themselves and others. Supervised restraints are necessary to ensure the safety of the patient and healthcare providers until the effects of corticosteroid toxicity subside. Restraints should only be used as a last resort when other interventions have failed.
Choice B: A loading dose of phenytoin is incorrect because phenytoin is not indicated for managing delirium secondary to corticosteroid toxicity.
Choice C: A small dose of prednisone is incorrect because adding more corticosteroids would exacerbate the toxicity and worsen the delirium.
Choice D: An IV dose of thiamine is incorrect as thiamine is used to treat thiamine deficiency, not corticosteroid toxicity-induced delirium.
Several children a day are seen in the emergency department for treatment of illnesses and injuries. The situation that would create a high index of suspicion of child abuse is a child who:
- A. Has repeated middle ear infections.
- B. Complains of abdominal cramps and upset stomach.
- C. Has perineal bruises and urinary tract infections.
- D. Displays reduced functioning at school.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because perineal bruises and urinary tract infections are physical signs that are highly suspicious for child abuse, particularly sexual abuse. Perineal bruises are not commonly seen in children due to accidental injuries, and urinary tract infections in young children are rare and may indicate sexual abuse. Repeated middle ear infections (choice A) and complaints of abdominal cramps and upset stomach (choice B) are common childhood illnesses that do not necessarily indicate child abuse. Displaying reduced functioning at school (choice D) may suggest various issues such as learning disabilities or emotional distress, but is not specific to child abuse.
Psychological dependence on mood- or behavior-altering drugs is known as
- A. drug psychosis
- B. a substance related disorder
- C. an orthopsychosis
- D. a psychotropic disorder
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Substance-related disorders encompass psychological dependence on drugs altering mood or behavior.
The antisocial personality is one who
- A. is irresponsible and seems to lack remorse
- B. is frequently dangerous and out of contact with reality
- C. is always a delinquent or criminal
- D. benefits greatly from humanistic and psychoanalytic therapies
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Antisocial personality features irresponsibility and lack of remorse, not necessarily overt danger.