Which of the following is related to recent attempts to find biochemical explanations for schizophrenia?
- A. schizotaxin
- B. psychotropin
- C. dopamine
- D. diazepam
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dopamine excess in the brain is a leading biochemical theory for schizophrenia, supported by antipsychotic efficacy.
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A supervisor observes inconsistency in the psychiatric-mental health nurse's behavior toward a patient; the nurse is unreasonably concerned, overly kind, or irrationally hostile. The most appropriate explanation is that the nurse is displaying:
- A. countertransference
- B. empathic resonance
- C. splitting behavior
- D. transference
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Countertransference involves the nurse's emotional reactions to the patient based on personal unconscious feelings, leading to inconsistent behavior.
To plan effective interventions, the nurse should understand that the underlying reason a patient with paranoid personality disorder is so critical of others probably lies in the patient's:
- A. need to control all aspects of the world around him.
- B. use of intellectualization to protect against anxiety.
- C. inflexible view of the environment and the people in it.
- D. projection of blame for his own shortcomings onto others.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because paranoid personality disorder is characterized by distrust and suspicion of others, leading individuals to project their own negative traits onto others (projection). This defense mechanism helps them avoid accepting their own shortcomings. Option A is incorrect because the focus is on control, not blame. Option B is incorrect as intellectualization is a defense mechanism that involves avoiding emotions by focusing on rational aspects. Option C is incorrect as it refers to rigidity and not projection of blame. In summary, projection of blame onto others is the underlying reason for the critical behavior in paranoid personality disorder.
Which of the following are behaviours that may be associated with adolescent depression?
- A. School refusal
- B. Social withdrawal
- C. Reduced self-care
- D. Maladaptive coping behaviours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: School refusal is a well-documented behavior associated with adolescent depression; the question implies a single correct answer, though B-D are also relevant.
A client with schizophrenia is medication compliant and has well-controlled symptoms. He has, however, never been successful in holding a job because of poor social skills and lack of understanding of basic job skills. The nurse case manager should consider referring the client:
- A. To a day hospital program
- B. For psychosocial rehabilitation
- C. For cognitive therapy
- D. To assertiveness training
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: For psychosocial rehabilitation. This option is the best choice as it focuses on improving the client's social skills and job-related abilities through structured programs. Psychosocial rehabilitation helps individuals with mental health conditions develop the necessary skills for successful integration into the community, including job skills training and social skill development. Referring the client to a day hospital program (A) may not address the specific needs related to job skills and social skills. Cognitive therapy (C) primarily focuses on addressing cognitive distortions and may not directly target the client's social and job-related deficits. Assertiveness training (D) may be helpful, but it may not address the broader range of skills needed for successful job placement and retention.
A client has been diagnosed with a dementia secondary to cerebral disease. The family members note the client 'has not been as sharp as he once was' and that he has developed urinary incontinence and a gait disturbance. They attributed the first symptom to normal aging but were alarmed by the latter two symptoms. Based on this history, which of the following should come to mind?
- A. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
- B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
- C. Hepatic disease
- D. Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The client presents with urinary incontinence and a gait disturbance, suggestive of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) due to cerebral disease.
Step 2: NPH is characterized by the triad of cognitive decline, gait disturbances, and urinary incontinence.
Step 3: Symptoms of NPH can mimic normal aging but are distinct from other conditions.
Step 4: Vitamin B12 deficiency (B) primarily presents with anemia and neurological symptoms, not the triad seen in NPH.
Step 5: Hepatic disease (C) typically presents with symptoms related to liver dysfunction, not the triad of NPH.
Step 6: Tuberculosis (D) manifests with respiratory symptoms and constitutional symptoms, not the cognitive decline and gait issues seen in NPH.