Nokea
Staff at the care facility note that a woman has started complaining of back pain in recent weeks and occasionally groans in pain. She has many comorbidities that require several prescription medications. The nurse knows that which factor is likely to complicate the clinician's assessment and treatment of the client's pain?
- A. Her advanced age may influence the expression and perception of pain.
- B. Her polypharmacy may complicate the pain management process.
- C. Her underlying conditions may mask or exacerbate the pain.
- D. Her cognitive function may decline, making pain assessment difficult.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Polypharmacy, or the use of multiple medications, can complicate pain management due to drug interactions and side effects. While advanced age can influence pain perception, it is not the most likely factor to complicate assessment and treatment in this scenario. Underlying conditions may affect pain perception but do not directly complicate the management process. Cognitive decline can hinder pain assessment, but in this case, the focus is on factors directly impacting the treatment process, making option B the most appropriate choice.
You may also like to solve these questions
How often should a patient be administered a tetanus toxoid?
- A. Every year
- B. Every 10 years
- C. Every 2 years
- D. Every 5 years
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tetanus toxoid should be administered every 10 years to ensure continued protection against tetanus infection. The correct answer is 'Every 10 years.' Choice A ('Every year') is incorrect as the frequency is too frequent. Choice C ('Every 2 years') is incorrect as it is too frequent for tetanus toxoid administration. Choice D ('Every 5 years') is incorrect as it does not align with the recommended interval for tetanus toxoid booster doses.
A patient is prescribed finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse include in the patient teaching regarding the expected outcomes of this therapy?
- A. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
- B. The effects of the medication may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
- C. The medication may cause increased hair growth.
- D. The medication may decrease libido.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable, so patients should be informed about this expected time frame. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as increased hair growth is a side effect of finasteride, not an expected outcome for BPH treatment. Choice D is also incorrect as decreased libido is a potential side effect of finasteride, not an expected outcome for BPH treatment.
A female patient is concerned about the side effects of oral contraceptives. What should the nurse explain as a common side effect?
- A. Increased energy levels
- B. Decreased libido
- C. Weight gain
- D. Hair loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common side effect of oral contraceptives due to hormonal changes. It is essential for healthcare providers to inform patients about this possibility to manage expectations.
Choice A, increased energy levels, is not a common side effect of oral contraceptives.
Choice B, decreased libido, can be a side effect for some individuals but is not as common as weight gain.
Choice D, hair loss, is not typically associated with oral contraceptives. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to address the patient's concerns by discussing the more prevalent side effects like weight gain.
When preparing to administer parenteral acyclovir (Zovirax) to an 80-year-old patient with chronic renal failure and herpes simplex, what would the nurse expect in regard to the dose?
- A. The dose is smaller due to the herpes simplex infection.
- B. The dose is smaller based on the patient's kidney function.
- C. The dose is higher in treating genital herpes.
- D. The dose is higher if the creatinine clearance is above 4.0 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In patients with chronic renal failure, especially in older adults, dosages of medications excreted renally need to be adjusted based on kidney function. Acyclovir is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so in a patient with chronic renal failure, the dose would need to be smaller to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because the dose adjustment is more related to the patient's kidney function than the presence of herpes simplex. Choice C is incorrect because the type of herpes infection does not determine the dose adjustment for acyclovir. Choice D is incorrect as the creatinine clearance is a more accurate measure of kidney function compared to creatinine levels.
A 34-year-old woman has presented to the clinic for the first time, and the nurse learns that she has been taking Depo Provera for the past 13 years. This aspect of the woman's medical history should prompt what assessment?
- A. Cardiac stress testing
- B. Renal ultrasound
- C. Bone density testing
- D. Evaluation of triglyceride levels
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is bone density testing (Choice C). Long-term use of Depo Provera, a hormonal contraceptive, is associated with decreased bone mineral density. Assessing bone density is crucial to monitor for potential osteoporosis. Cardiac stress testing (Choice A) is not indicated based on the medication history provided. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and evaluation of triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not directly related to the use of Depo Provera.