A patient has suffered from several infections in the last 6 months and unexplained impaired wound healing. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Assess for pain.
- B. Assess for nutritional deficiencies.
- C. Assess genetic tendency for infection.
- D. Assess for edema and decreased hemoglobin.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of multiple infections and impaired wound healing indicates a potential issue with their immune system and overall health. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Proper nutrition is essential for a healthy immune response and wound healing. Assessing for pain (choice A) may be important but addressing the root cause of the recurrent infections and impaired wound healing is crucial. Genetic tendency for infection (choice C) would be a less immediate concern compared to assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Edema and decreased hemoglobin (choice D) are not the most relevant assessments based on the patient's symptoms.
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A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What important information should the nurse provide during patient education?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so patients should monitor their diet.
- C. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so patients should ensure adequate calcium intake.
- D. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of breast cancer, so regular mammograms are essential.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots. This information is crucial as early recognition and prompt treatment of blood clots can prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with causing weight gain, decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, or increasing the risk of breast cancer. Providing accurate information is essential for patient safety and understanding.
During surgery, the anesthesia personnel notice the client is having a steady rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide level. At this time, the nurse anesthetist begins to assess the client for malignant hyperthermia. The initial (priority) assessment for this disorder may include:
- A. measuring serum potassium levels.
- B. monitoring for muscle rigidity.
- C. evaluating renal function.
- D. checking arterial blood gases.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: monitoring for muscle rigidity. Muscle rigidity is a hallmark sign of malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetics. Monitoring for this sign is critical in the early identification of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial priority assessments for malignant hyperthermia. Measuring serum potassium levels, evaluating renal function, and checking arterial blood gases are not specific initial assessments for malignant hyperthermia and would not aid in its early identification.
A client with a history of tuberculosis (TB) is experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered?
- A. Sputum culture
- B. Bronchoscopy
- C. Chest x-ray
- D. CT scan of the chest
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A chest x-ray is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a client with a history of tuberculosis experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. A chest x-ray is commonly used to visualize the lungs and check for signs of active tuberculosis, such as abnormal shadows or nodules. While a sputum culture (Choice A) can confirm the presence of TB bacteria, it may not be the initial test ordered for a recurrence. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) and CT scan of the chest (Choice D) are more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the chest x-ray is inconclusive or to further assess complications, rather than as the initial diagnostic test for a recurrence of tuberculosis.
A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What outcome should the nurse expect if the medication is effective?
- A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
- B. Increased prostate size
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH. As a result, when the medication is effective, the patient should experience a decrease in urinary frequency and urgency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate because finasteride aims to reduce prostate size, not increase it. Choices C and D are unrelated to the action of finasteride in treating BPH.
When the body produces antibodies against its own tissue, the condition is called:
- A. Alloimmunity
- B. Opsonization
- C. Autoimmunity
- D. Hypersensitivity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Autoimmunity is the correct term for a condition where the body's immune system mistakenly targets its own tissues. Alloimmunity (Choice A) refers to an immune response against foreign tissue. Opsonization (Choice B) is a process where pathogens are marked for destruction by immune cells. Hypersensitivity (Choice D) involves an exaggerated immune response against antigens.