ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet

ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet Related

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A 30-year-old male has been brought to the emergency department by his wife because of a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals a high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Which organism is the most likely cause of these findings?

  • A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • B. Neisseria meningitidis
  • C. Escherichia coli
  • D. Listeria monocytogenes
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis findings of high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are classic for bacterial meningitis. Among the choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely cause in this case. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially presenting with symptoms such as severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Neisseria meningitidis is another common cause of bacterial meningitis but is more frequently associated with a different CSF profile. Escherichia coli is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, not typically seen in a 30-year-old male. Listeria monocytogenes is more commonly associated with meningitis in immunocompromised individuals and neonates, and typically presents differently in CSF analysis.

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When starting on oral contraceptives, what key point should the nurse emphasize about taking the medication consistently?

  • A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
  • B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
  • C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
  • D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential to maximize contraceptive efficacy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence that taking oral contraceptives in the morning helps avoid nighttime side effects. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives do not provide immediate effectiveness and require consistent use to prevent pregnancy.

A patient is starting on finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

  • A. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
  • B. The effects of the medication may take several weeks or months to become noticeable.
  • C. The medication may cause increased hair growth.
  • D. The medication may decrease libido.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this expected time frame to manage expectations. Choice A is incorrect because finasteride does not cure BPH but helps in managing symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as one of the side effects of finasteride is decreased hair growth. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride may cause a decrease in libido as a side effect.

When treating a patient for a fungal infection with IV amphotericin B, what should the nurse consistently monitor the patient's levels of to prevent drug discomfort?

  • A. sodium
  • B. hemoglobin
  • C. calcium
  • D. leukocytes
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is being treated with IV amphotericin B for a fungal infection, it is crucial to monitor the patient's calcium levels consistently. IV amphotericin B can cause hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and most notably, hypocalcemia. Monitoring calcium levels helps prevent drug-related discomfort and adverse effects. Sodium (Choice A), hemoglobin (Choice B), and leukocytes (Choice D) are not the primary parameters to monitor specifically for drug discomfort related to amphotericin B. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.

A client asks a nurse about the cause of Parkinson's disease. How should the nurse respond?

  • A. Parkinson's disease is caused by a lack of dopamine in the brain, which affects movement.
  • B. Parkinson's disease is caused by an excess of acetylcholine in the brain, leading to tremors and rigidity.
  • C. Parkinson's disease is caused by an autoimmune response that attacks the nervous system.
  • D. Parkinson's disease is caused by a bacterial infection that needs to be treated with antibiotics.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Parkinson's disease is caused by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, which results in the characteristic motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Choice B is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not caused by an excess of acetylcholine. Choice C is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not an autoimmune disorder. Choice D is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not caused by a bacterial infection and cannot be treated with antibiotics.

A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:

  • A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
  • B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
  • C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
  • D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.

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