A client asks a nurse about the cause of Parkinson's disease. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Parkinson's disease is caused by a lack of dopamine in the brain, which affects movement.
- B. Parkinson's disease is caused by an excess of acetylcholine in the brain, leading to tremors and rigidity.
- C. Parkinson's disease is caused by an autoimmune response that attacks the nervous system.
- D. Parkinson's disease is caused by a bacterial infection that needs to be treated with antibiotics.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Parkinson's disease is caused by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, which results in the characteristic motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Choice B is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not caused by an excess of acetylcholine. Choice C is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not an autoimmune disorder. Choice D is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not caused by a bacterial infection and cannot be treated with antibiotics.
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In discussing sex hormone production with the patient, the nurse should describe that testosterone is normally secreted in response to
- A. sexual arousal.
- B. stimulation by luteinizing hormone.
- C. ACTH release by the adrenal cortex.
- D. decreased cortisol levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Testosterone production is regulated by the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, 'sexual arousal,' is incorrect because testosterone secretion is not directly linked to arousal but rather to hormonal stimulation. Choice C, 'ACTH release by the adrenal cortex,' is incorrect as testosterone production is not primarily regulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Choice D, 'decreased cortisol levels,' is also incorrect as cortisol and testosterone are regulated by separate endocrine pathways.
A patient is prescribed estradiol (Estrace) for hormone replacement therapy. What should the nurse monitor during this therapy?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Liver function tests
- D. Kidney function tests
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During estradiol therapy, the nurse should monitor liver function tests. Estradiol can potentially impact liver function, making it essential to assess for any signs of liver dysfunction. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to estradiol therapy. While blood glucose levels (Choice B) should be monitored in patients taking certain medications like corticosteroids or antipsychotics, it is not typically necessary for patients on estradiol therapy. Kidney function tests (Choice D) are not the priority for monitoring during estradiol therapy, as the liver is more commonly affected.
A 30-year-old male has been brought to the emergency department by his wife because of a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals a high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Which organism is the most likely cause of these findings?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Neisseria meningitidis
- C. Escherichia coli
- D. Listeria monocytogenes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis findings of high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are classic for bacterial meningitis. Among the choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely cause in this case. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially presenting with symptoms such as severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Neisseria meningitidis is another common cause of bacterial meningitis but is more frequently associated with a different CSF profile. Escherichia coli is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, not typically seen in a 30-year-old male. Listeria monocytogenes is more commonly associated with meningitis in immunocompromised individuals and neonates, and typically presents differently in CSF analysis.
The college health nurse is providing health education for freshmen. Which of the following pieces of information about immunizations is applicable to individuals of this age group?
- A. The oral polio vaccine should be updated.
- B. The yearly administration of flu vaccine is recommended.
- C. The tetanus toxoid should be within 2 years.
- D. The administration of hepatitis A vaccine is mandatory.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For freshmen in college, the yearly administration of the flu vaccine is recommended. This is important to protect against seasonal influenza outbreaks that can spread rapidly in close living quarters such as dormitories. Choice A is incorrect as oral polio vaccine is not typically given to individuals of this age group. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid boosters are usually recommended every 10 years, not within 2 years. Choice D is incorrect as the administration of the hepatitis A vaccine is not mandatory for all individuals in this age group.
During an acute asthma exacerbation, what is the priority nursing intervention for a client with asthma?
- A. Administer corticosteroids to reduce airway inflammation.
- B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
- C. Administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed.
- D. Obtain a peak flow reading to assess the severity of the exacerbation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention during an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed. SABAs help in quickly relieving bronchospasm and are considered the first-line treatment for acute exacerbations. Administering corticosteroids, positioning the client, and obtaining a peak flow reading are important interventions but come after administering SABAs in the management of acute asthma exacerbation.