Nokea
A patient has been prescribed an estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive. The nurse should emphasize that the risk of thrombophlebitis is most likely in patients who:
- A. Are diabetic.
- B. Smoke cigarettes.
- C. Have a history of hypertension.
- D. Are older than 40.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Smoking is a significant risk factor for thrombophlebitis, particularly when combined with estrogen-progestin contraceptives.
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A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of bone fractures
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Androgen therapy can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly in older patients.
What action is specific to hormonal contraceptives and should be taught to this woman?
- A. The cervical mucus is made resistant to penetration by sperm.
- B. The release of follicle-stimulating hormone is increased to block fertility.
- C. The maturation of the endometrial lining is activated by the contraceptive.
- D. The pituitary gland increases the synthesis and release of luteinizing hormone.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action specific to hormonal contraceptives that should be taught to the woman is that they alter cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration. This mechanism helps in preventing pregnancy by reducing the chances of sperm reaching the egg. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate as hormonal contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation rather than increasing follicle-stimulating hormone release. Choice C is incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not activate the maturation of the endometrial lining; instead, they modify it to prevent implantation. Choice D is also incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not stimulate the pituitary gland to increase luteinizing hormone synthesis and release.
A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause.
- A. Ferritin
- B. Gastric enzymes
- C. Intrinsic factor
- D. Erythropoietin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A decrease in intrinsic factor is the most likely cause of pernicious anemia.
Which of the following nursing diagnoses would provide the most plausible indication for the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in a patient with renal failure?
- A. Risk for infection related to decreased erythropoiesis
- B. Activity intolerance related to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity
- C. Powerlessness-related sequelae of renal failure
- D. Ineffective breathing pattern related to inadequate erythropoietin synthesis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A postmenopausal woman is administered estradiol (Estraderm). What condition will be prevented in this patient?
- A. Endometriosis
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Uterine cancer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Conjugated estrogens are used to prevent osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.