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A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
- D. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. This is crucial for the drug to work optimally. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate does not necessarily need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice C is not directly related to the medication's administration and is not a common teaching point for this drug. Choice D is incorrect as discontinuing the medication abruptly can lead to adverse effects and is not recommended without consulting a healthcare provider.
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A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What is the expected therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Increased urinary output
- D. Increased hair growth
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH, which helps alleviate symptoms such as urinary frequency and urgency. Choice B, decreased blood pressure, is incorrect because finasteride is not indicated for lowering blood pressure. Choice C, increased urinary output, is incorrect as finasteride does not typically increase urine production. Choice D, increased hair growth, is incorrect as the primary use of finasteride is not for promoting hair growth but rather for treating BPH.
A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?
- A. Decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys.
- B. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium.
- C. Stimulates bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
- D. Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
A college student has a TB test prior to starting the semester. The tuberculin test site is noted with a reddened, raised area. What condition will the student be diagnosed with if the chest radiograph is negative?
- A. Transmission
- B. Primary infection
- C. Latent tuberculosis
- D. Active tuberculosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: If the chest radiograph is negative despite a positive tuberculin skin test, the student will be diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection. Latent tuberculosis means the student has the TB bacteria in their body but does not feel sick and cannot spread the disease. Choice A, 'Transmission,' is incorrect as it refers to the spread of TB from person to person. Choice B, 'Primary infection,' is incorrect because primary infection occurs when a person is first infected with the TB bacteria. Choice D, 'Active tuberculosis,' is incorrect as this refers to the active form of the disease where the person feels sick and can spread TB to others.
A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:
- A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
- B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
- C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
- D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.
A client asks a nurse about the cause of Parkinson's disease. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Parkinson's disease is caused by a lack of dopamine in the brain, which affects movement.
- B. Parkinson's disease is caused by an excess of acetylcholine in the brain, leading to tremors and rigidity.
- C. Parkinson's disease is caused by an autoimmune response that attacks the nervous system.
- D. Parkinson's disease is caused by a bacterial infection that needs to be treated with antibiotics.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Parkinson's disease is caused by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, which results in the characteristic motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Choice B is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not caused by an excess of acetylcholine. Choice C is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not an autoimmune disorder. Choice D is incorrect because Parkinson's disease is not caused by a bacterial infection and cannot be treated with antibiotics.