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A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse discuss with the patient regarding the risks of HRT?
- A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so the patient should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. HRT can decrease the risk of osteoporosis, but the patient should also be aware of the increased risk of venous thromboembolism.
- C. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer, so the patient should undergo regular breast exams.
- D. HRT can improve mood and energy levels, but it also carries a risk of cardiovascular events.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is indeed associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because although HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, the focus of concern in this case is the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions the risk of breast cancer, which is not the primary concern when discussing HRT with a patient with a history of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is also incorrect as it mentions cardiovascular events, which are not the main focus of risk associated with HRT in this scenario.
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When administering azoles in the home setting, the home health nurse should prioritize educational interventions that address what nursing diagnosis?
- A. Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy
- B. Risk for acute confusion related to antifungal therapy
- C. Risk for infection related to antifungal therapy
- D. Risk for falls related to antifungal therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy. When administering azoles, the priority is to educate patients and caregivers about potential side effects that could lead to injury, such as hepatotoxicity or allergic reactions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because acute confusion, infection, and falls are not typically associated with azole therapy.
What does a client's symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion indicate?
- A. Increased intracranial pressure
- B. Lower extremity compartment syndrome
- C. Consuming too much food at once
- D. Improved kidney function
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The symptoms of headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness following a concussion are indicative of increased intracranial pressure. These symptoms suggest a serious condition that can occur after head trauma, requiring immediate medical attention. Lower extremity compartment syndrome presents with symptoms related to pressure build-up in the muscles of the legs, not the head. Consuming too much food at once does not manifest with these neurological symptoms. Improved kidney function would not present with symptoms such as headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness.
A nurse is administering testosterone to a patient with hypogonadism. What outcome indicates that the treatment is having the desired effect?
- A. Increased libido
- B. Increased muscle mass
- C. Improved secondary sexual characteristics
- D. Decreased sperm count
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Improved secondary sexual characteristics.' Testosterone therapy in patients with hypogonadism typically leads to improved secondary sexual characteristics, which include increased muscle mass and libido. While increased libido (choice A) and increased muscle mass (choice B) are effects of testosterone therapy, they are more specific outcomes related to secondary sexual characteristics. Decreased sperm count (choice D) would not be an expected outcome of testosterone therapy for hypogonadism, as testosterone is essential for sperm production.
What condition can be caused by an excessive amount of growth hormone released by the pituitary gland in childhood?
- A. Acromegaly
- B. Gigantism
- C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
- D. Dwarfism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gigantism is the correct answer. It is a condition caused by excessive growth hormone release before the epiphyseal plates close, leading to abnormal growth. Acromegaly (choice A) is caused by excess growth hormone after the epiphyseal plates close, resulting in enlargement of bones and tissues. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (choice C) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Dwarfism (choice D) is a condition characterized by significantly below-average height.
During patient teaching, a young woman asks the nurse the following question: 'If I get pregnant on the 'pill,' should I continue to take it?' What is the nurse's best response?
- A. The pill has no effect on pregnancy.
- B. The pill will cause miscarriage.
- C. This is a personal choice for each woman.
- D. The pill can be harmful to the fetus and should be discontinued.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: This is a personal choice for each woman.' If a woman becomes pregnant while taking birth control pills, it is generally recommended to discontinue them as they can potentially harm the fetus. However, the decision to continue or discontinue the pill in case of pregnancy is ultimately a personal choice for each woman. Choice A is incorrect because birth control pills are meant to prevent pregnancy, but if a woman becomes pregnant while taking them, the situation changes. Choice B is incorrect because birth control pills do not cause miscarriage; they are intended to prevent pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect because while it is generally advised to discontinue the pill if pregnancy occurs, the decision ultimately depends on the individual circumstances and preferences of the woman.