Nokea
An hour after delivery, a 4000 gram infant exhibits pallor, jitteriness, a blood sugar level of 40 gm/dL, irritability and periodic apnea. Which maternal condition could be the cause of the newborn's symptoms?
- A. Drug addiction
- B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
- C. TORCH infection
- D. Gestational diabetes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gestational diabetes. Infants born to mothers with gestational diabetes are at risk for hypoglycemia due to excessive production of insulin in response to maternal hyperglycemia. This causes the infant's blood sugar level to drop, leading to symptoms such as pallor, jitteriness, irritability, and apnea. The maternal condition directly affects the newborn's blood sugar levels, explaining the infant's symptoms.
Choice A: Drug addiction does not directly cause hypoglycemia in the newborn.
Choice B: Pregnancy-induced hypertension would not typically result in hypoglycemia in the newborn.
Choice C: TORCH infections are unlikely to cause the specific symptoms described in the newborn.
In summary, only gestational diabetes directly affects the newborn's blood sugar levels, leading to the observed symptoms.
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For a pregnant adolescent who is anemic, which foods should the nurse include in the client's dietary plan to increase iron levels?
- A. Milk and fish
- B. Chicken and cottage cheese
- C. Orange juice and apricots
- D. Pickles and peanut butter sandwiches
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Orange juice and apricots. Orange juice is a good source of Vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption. Apricots are high in iron, helping to increase iron levels in the body. Milk and fish (choice A) contain little iron. Chicken and cottage cheese (choice B) are not significant sources of iron. Pickles and peanut butter sandwiches (choice D) lack iron and Vitamin C.
A breastfeeding mother complains of cramping. Which is the main cause of the client's afterpains?
- A. Infection of the suture line
- B. Constipation and bloating
- C. Contractions of the uterus
- D. Trauma during delivery
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Contractions of the uterus. After giving birth, the uterus continues to contract to reduce in size, which can cause cramping or afterpains. This is a normal process known as involution. Infection of the suture line (A) would present with other symptoms like redness, swelling, and warmth. Constipation and bloating (B) may cause discomfort but are not directly related to afterpains. Trauma during delivery (D) could lead to pain but is not the main cause of afterpains in a breastfeeding mother.
Which procedure should be avoided for the client known to have a placenta previa?
- A. A non-stress test
- B. A urinary catheterization
- C. A sterile vaginal exam
- D. An abdominal ultrasound
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A sterile vaginal exam. Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or fully covering the cervix, making a vaginal exam risky due to potential disruption of the placenta and causing severe bleeding. This procedure should be avoided to prevent harm to the client and the baby. A: A non-stress test, D: An abdominal ultrasound, and B: A urinary catheterization are safe procedures that do not pose a risk to the client with placenta previa.
Which condition must occur in order for identical (monozygotic) twins to develop?
- A. One sperm fertilizes two ova
- B. Two sperm fertilize two ova
- C. One sperm fertilizes one ovum
- D. Two sperm fertilize one ovum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: One sperm fertilizes one ovum. Identical twins result from the fertilization of a single egg by a single sperm, leading to the formation of a zygote that later splits into two embryos. This process results in genetically identical individuals. Choices A, B, and D involve multiple fertilization events, which would lead to fraternal (dizygotic) twins with different genetic compositions. Therefore, the only condition that can lead to the development of identical twins is when one sperm fertilizes one ovum.
A nurse on a pediatric unit is assigned to care for a child with Reye syndrome. Which of the following is the most serious clinical manifestation for which the nurse should monitor?
- A. Anaphylaxis
- B. Cerebral edema
- C. Impaired coagulation
- D. Hypervolemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cerebral edema. In Reye syndrome, cerebral edema is the most serious manifestation due to increased intracranial pressure, potentially leading to brain damage or death. Anaphylaxis (A) is not typically associated with Reye syndrome. Impaired coagulation (C) can occur but is not as immediately life-threatening as cerebral edema. Hypervolemia (D) is a possible complication but not as critical as cerebral edema in Reye syndrome.