Nokea
A patient with a history of cardiovascular disease is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse emphasize regarding the long-term risks associated with HRT?
- A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke.
- B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
- D. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
You may also like to solve these questions
Thrombocytopenia is which disorder below?
- A. Increased blood coagulation
- B. Increased platelet production
- C. Increased number of infections
- D. Decreased platelet production
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a disorder characterized by a decreased platelet count or decreased platelet production, which affects blood clotting. Choice A, 'Increased blood coagulation,' is incorrect as thrombocytopenia is associated with decreased platelets, leading to impaired clotting. Choice B, 'Increased platelet production,' is incorrect as thrombocytopenia is characterized by a decrease in platelet production. Choice C, 'Increased number of infections,' is unrelated to thrombocytopenia, which primarily involves low platelet levels.
A patient is hospitalized due to nonadherence to an antitubercular drug treatment. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to do?
- A. Observe the patient taking the medications.
- B. Administer the medications parenterally.
- C. Instruct the family on the medication regimen.
- D. Count the number of tablets in the bottle daily.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the most crucial action for the nurse to take is to observe the patient taking the medications. This ensures that the patient is actually consuming the prescribed antitubercular drugs, addressing the issue of nonadherence directly. Administering the medications parenterally (intravenously or intramuscularly) is not necessary unless there are specific medical reasons requiring this route of administration. Instructing the family on the medication regimen is important for support but may not directly address the patient's nonadherence. Counting the number of tablets in the bottle daily is not as effective as directly observing the patient taking the medications to ensure compliance.
A client with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer pain relief medication.
- B. Obtain a stat head CT scan.
- C. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
- D. Call the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed. In a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache and blurred vision, these symptoms could indicate a hypertensive crisis. The priority action is to lower the blood pressure promptly to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications is crucial in this situation. Administering pain relief medication (Choice A) may temporarily alleviate symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of elevated blood pressure. Obtaining a stat head CT scan (Choice B) may be necessary to rule out other causes but should not delay the administration of antihypertensive medications. Calling the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important but may not address the immediate need to lower blood pressure in a hypertensive crisis.
A 60-year-old male client with a long history of back pain has had little success with a variety of analgesic regimens that his family physician has prescribed. He has recently been diagnosed with a chronic pain disorder. Which teaching points about chronic pain would his physician most likely emphasize to the client?
- A. Chronic pain is often difficult to treat and requires a multimodal approach.
- B. Chronic pain indicates that an underlying injury has not healed properly.
- C. Chronic pain can be managed with a single long-term medication.
- D. Chronic pain is typically less severe than acute pain but lasts longer.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chronic pain is often complex and challenging to treat, necessitating a multimodal approach that may include medication, physical therapy, and behavioral therapy. Choice B is incorrect because chronic pain does not always indicate that an underlying injury has not healed properly; it can persist even after the initial injury has healed. Choice C is incorrect as chronic pain management usually involves a combination of treatments rather than relying solely on a single long-term medication. Choice D is incorrect because chronic pain is not necessarily less severe than acute pain; it can vary in intensity and duration depending on the individual and underlying condition.
What causes hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. A brain infection
- B. Increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream
- C. Decreased albumin blood levels
- D. Untreated chronic bronchitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism normally processed by the liver, accumulates in the bloodstream when the liver is unable to function properly. This excess ammonia affects brain function, leading to symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.