Nokea
A 15-year-old client visits the clinic to get medical clearance to play a sport.
- A. "I will avoid showering at the gym."'
- B. "I can apply an antifungal cream daily."'
- C. "I should wear dark-colored socks."'
- D. "I should wear well-ventilated shoes."'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I should wear well-ventilated shoes." This is because well-ventilated shoes help prevent fungal infections by keeping the feet dry and reducing moisture buildup, which is crucial for active individuals like athletes. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding showering at the gym is not a practical solution for preventing fungal infections. Choice B, applying antifungal cream daily, is reactive rather than preventive. Choice C, wearing dark-colored socks, does not directly address the issue of moisture and ventilation.
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Two days after delivery, a postpartum client prepares for discharge. What should the nurse teach her about lochia flow?
- A. Lochia does change color but goes from lochia rubra (bright red) on days 1-3, to lochia serosa (pinkish brown) on days 4-9, to lochia alba (creamy white) days 10-21.
- B. Numerous clots are abnormal and should be reported to the physician.
- C. Saturation of the perineal pad is considered abnormal and may indicate postpartum hemorrhage.
- D. Lochia normally lasts for about 21 days, and changes from a bright red, to pinkish brown, to creamy white.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Lochia normally lasts for about 21 days, and changes from a bright red, to pinkish brown, to creamy white. This is accurate information regarding the typical progression of lochia flow postpartum. Lochia rubra is the initial discharge, followed by lochia serosa, and finally, lochia alba. This teaching is important for the client to understand what to expect in terms of postpartum bleeding.
Choice A is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the color changes of lochia. Choice B is incorrect because the presence of numerous clots is common in the immediate postpartum period and not necessarily abnormal. Choice C is incorrect as perineal pad saturation is expected initially, and significant saturation may not always indicate hemorrhage.
If a pregnant client diagnosed with gestational diabetes cannot maintain control of her blood sugar by diet alone, which medication will she receive?
- A. Metformin (Glucophage)
- B. Glucagon
- C. Insulin
- D. Glyburide (DiaBeta)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insulin. Insulin is the preferred medication for managing gestational diabetes as it is safe for the fetus and provides precise blood sugar control. Metformin (A) and Glyburide (D) are alternatives if insulin is not tolerated, but they may cross the placenta and have potential risks. Glucagon (B) is not used for diabetes management but for treating severe hypoglycemia.
Which treatment is a nursing priority when providing care for an infant diagnosed with bacterial meningitis?
- A. Initiate cardiorespiratory monitoring.
- B. Initiate intravenous fluids.
- C. Observe respiratory isolation.
- D. Administer antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The first nursing priority is the implementation of antibiotic therapy, which prohibits the microbial damage to the neurologic system through the cerebral spinal fluid. Immediate treatment with antibiotics can prevent serious complications such as death, deafness, reduced cognitive ability, and seizures.
A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant with acute bronchiolitis. The infant has a persistent, dry, hacking cough that worsens at night, tachypnea, and weakness. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer prescribed cough suppressants as needed.
- B. Place the child on droplet precautions.
- C. Administer antibiotics and corticosteroids as prescribed.
- D. Provide intravenous fluids as prescribed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: IV fluids ensure hydration and dilute secretions, which is crucial in bronchiolitis.
Which data support a diagnosis of abruptio placenta in a pregnant woman?
- A. Uterine rigidity and abdominal pain
- B. Painless bleeding with soft abdomen
- C. Premature rupture of membranes and uterine contractions
- D. Bright red blood loss and elevated blood pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uterine rigidity and abdominal pain. Abruptio placenta is characterized by premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Uterine rigidity indicates the presence of a hypertonic uterus due to the sudden hemorrhage, leading to severe abdominal pain. This is a classic presentation of abruptio placenta. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the typical clinical features of abruptio placenta. Painless bleeding with a soft abdomen does not suggest an acute and painful condition like abruptio placenta. Premature rupture of membranes and uterine contractions are more indicative of preterm labor or premature rupture of membranes, not abruptio placenta. Bright red blood loss and elevated blood pressure are more characteristic of placenta previa or preeclampsia, respectively, not abruptio placenta.