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A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation about nutrition during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my protein intake to 60 grams each day.
- B. I should drink 2 liters of water each day.
- C. I should increase my overall daily caloric intake by 300 calories.
- D. I should take 600 micrograms of folic acid each day.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because folic acid is crucial during pregnancy to prevent birth defects like spina bifida. It is recommended to take 600 micrograms daily. Choice A is incorrect as the recommended protein intake is 71 grams/day. Choice B is important but doesn't address nutrition specifically. Choice C is unnecessary and could lead to excessive weight gain.
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A nurse is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. A newborn who is 26 hr old and has erythema toxicum on their face.
- B. A newborn who is 32 hr old and has not passed a meconium stool.
- C. A newborn who is 12 hr old and has pink-tinged urine.
- D. A newborn who is 18 hr old and has an axillary temperature of 37.7° C (99.9° F).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Failure to pass meconium stool within the first 24-48 hours after birth can indicate a possible intestinal obstruction or other issues that need immediate attention. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for further evaluation and intervention.
Choices A, C, and D are normal findings in newborns and do not require immediate reporting. E, F, and G are not applicable in this context.
A nurse who is caring for a client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?
- A. Check the client's temperature.
- B. Observe for uterine contractions.
- C. Administer Rh(0) Immune globulin.
- D. Monitor the FHR.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer Rh(0) Immune globulin. This is the priority intervention as the client is Rh-negative and has just undergone an invasive procedure like amniocentesis, which carries a risk of fetal-maternal blood transfer. Administering Rh(0) Immune globulin helps prevent the development of Rh incompatibility, which could lead to hemolytic disease in the newborn. Checking the client's temperature (A) and monitoring the FHR (D) are important but not the priority immediately post-procedure. Observing for uterine contractions (B) is important but not the priority for an Rh-negative client after amniocentesis.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and has a positive contraction stress test. For which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse prepare the client?
- A. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling.
- B. Amnioinfusion.
- C. Biophysical profile (BPP).
- D. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biophysical profile (BPP). At 41 weeks of gestation, a positive contraction stress test indicates potential placental insufficiency. A BPP assesses fetal well-being by evaluating fetal movement, muscle tone, breathing, amniotic fluid volume, and heart rate reactivity. This test helps determine the need for immediate delivery.
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (A) is used to directly sample fetal blood for genetic testing and not for assessing fetal well-being. Amnioinfusion (B) is used to increase amniotic fluid volume during labor and not for evaluating fetal well-being. Chorionic villus sampling (D) is an invasive prenatal diagnostic test for genetic abnormalities and not for assessing fetal well-being.
A school nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent about levonorgestrel contraception. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse.
- B. You should avoid taking this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive.
- C. If you don't start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test.
- D. One dose of this medication will prevent you from becoming pregnant for 14 days after taking it.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse. Levonorgestrel is most effective when taken within 72 hours after unprotected sex to prevent pregnancy. This timing is crucial for its efficacy.
Choice B is incorrect because levonorgestrel can be used in combination with oral contraceptives if needed. Choice C is incorrect as the absence of a period does not always indicate pregnancy, and a pregnancy test may not be necessary. Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is effective for a shorter duration, not 14 days.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is in labor and is requesting epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in a supine position for 30 min following the first dose of anesthetic solution.
- B. Administer 1,000 mL of dextrose 5% in water prior to the first dose of anesthetic solution.
- C. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 min following the first dose of anesthetic solution.
- D. Ensure the client has been NPO 4 hr prior to the placement of the epidural and the first dose of anesthetic solution.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 min following the first dose of anesthetic solution.
Rationale: Continuous monitoring of blood pressure is crucial after administering epidural anesthesia to detect any potential hypotension, a common side effect. This frequent monitoring allows for prompt intervention if hypotension occurs, ensuring the client's safety. It is essential to closely monitor the client's vital signs, particularly blood pressure, to prevent complications such as decreased placental perfusion and fetal distress.
Summary:
A: Placing the client in a supine position for 30 min following the first dose of anesthetic solution is not recommended as it can lead to aortocaval compression and compromise blood flow to the fetus.
B: Administering dextrose 5% in water prior to the first dose of anesthetic solution is not necessary for epidural anesthesia.
D: Ensuring the client has been NPO 4 hr prior to the placement of the epidural is