Nokea
While caring for a toddler receiving oxygen (02) via face mask, the nurse observes that the child's lips and nares are dry and cracked. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Ask the mother what she usually uses on the child's lips and nose.
- B. Apply a petroleum jelly (Vaseline) to the child's nose and lips.
- C. Use a topical lidocaine (Zylocaine viscous) analgesic for cracked lips.
- D. Use a water-soluble lubricant on affected oral and nasal mucosa.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A water-soluble lubricant is safe to use in conjunction with oxygen therapy, unlike petroleum jelly which is flammable.
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A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is placed on a protein-restricted diet. Which nutritional goal supports this dietary change?
- A. Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decrease the risk of hyperkalemia
- C. Promote healing of injured nephrons
- D. Promote the elimination of albumin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN). A protein-restricted diet is essential for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea nitrogen, as the kidneys cannot effectively excrete it. This helps in managing the accumulation of waste products in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not directly related to a protein-restricted diet but focuses on managing potassium levels. Choice C is not a direct nutritional goal of a protein-restricted diet but aims at supporting kidney function. Choice D is not a target of a protein-restricted diet but relates more to managing protein loss in the urine.
A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?
- A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's urine output.
- C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering insulin is the most important intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. In DKA, there is a lack of insulin leading to hyperglycemia and ketosis. Insulin administration helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are crucial in treating DKA. Administering intravenous fluids helps with dehydration, monitoring urine output is important to assess renal function, but the priority is addressing the underlying cause of DKA by administering insulin. Administering 50% dextrose IV push is incorrect as it would further elevate blood glucose levels, which is contraindicated in DKA.
The charge nurse observes a new nurse preparing to insert an intravenous (IV) catheter. The new nurse has gathered supplies, including intravenous catheters, an intravenous insertion kit, and a 4x4 sterile gauze dressing to cover and secure the insertion site. What action should the charge nurse take?
- A. Instruct the nurse to use a transparent dressing over the site
- B. Allow the new nurse to proceed with the procedure
- C. Assist the new nurse with the insertion
- D. Replace the 4x4 gauze with a larger dressing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the nurse to use a transparent dressing over the site. Transparent dressings allow for continuous observation of the IV site, reducing the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because the charge nurse should intervene to ensure the new nurse follows best practices. Choice C is incorrect as the charge nurse should not just assist but provide guidance on the correct procedure. Choice D is incorrect because the size of the dressing is not the issue; it's the type of dressing that allows for better observation.
A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
- B. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
- C. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six months
- D. One additional negative Pap smear in six months is needed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Temperature of 101.5°F
- B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- D. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg in a client with sepsis is concerning for septic shock, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Hypotension is a severe manifestation of sepsis that can lead to poor tissue perfusion and organ failure. While the other assessment findings such as an elevated temperature, increased heart rate, and respiratory rate are also common in sepsis, hypotension is particularly alarming as it indicates a critical state of shock and necessitates urgent medical attention.