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A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat foods that taste good instead of balancing my meals.
- B. I will avoid having a snack before I go to bed each night.
- C. I will have a cup of hot tea with each meal.
- D. I will eliminate products that contain dairy from my diet.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
- Dairy products can exacerbate symptoms of hyperemesis gravidarum due to their high-fat content.
- Eliminating dairy can help reduce nausea and vomiting.
- It shows the client understands the importance of modifying their diet for symptom management.
Incorrect Options:
- A: Choosing taste over balanced meals may not address the client's nutritional needs.
- B: Avoiding bedtime snacks may not directly impact hyperemesis gravidarum symptoms.
- C: Hot tea may not necessarily be beneficial for managing hyperemesis gravidarum.
Summary: Eliminating dairy is crucial in managing hyperemesis gravidarum by reducing symptoms, unlike the other options that may not directly address the condition.
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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following tubal ligation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Premenstrual tension will no longer be present.
- B. My monthly menstrual period will be shorter.
- C. Hormone replacements will be needed following this procedure.
- D. Ovulation will remain the same.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ovulation will remain the same. This statement indicates an understanding of tubal ligation, which is a permanent method of contraception that prevents pregnancy by blocking the fallopian tubes. Ovulation, the release of an egg from the ovary, will continue to occur after tubal ligation. This is because tubal ligation does not affect the hormonal process of ovulation.
Choice A is incorrect because premenstrual tension can still occur even after tubal ligation. Choice B is incorrect as tubal ligation does not affect the duration of menstrual periods. Choice C is incorrect because hormone replacements are not typically needed after tubal ligation unless there are other underlying medical conditions.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and has a positive contraction stress test. For which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse prepare the client?
- A. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
- B. Amnioinfusion
- C. Biophysical profile (BPP)
- D. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biophysical profile (BPP). This test evaluates the fetus's well-being by assessing fetal heart rate, fetal breathing movements, fetal movement, fetal tone, and the volume of amniotic fluid. In a client at 41 weeks with a positive contraction stress test, a BPP helps determine if immediate delivery is necessary due to potential fetal distress.
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (A) is used to directly sample fetal blood and assess fetal oxygenation but is not typically indicated in this scenario. Amnioinfusion (B) is used to relieve variable decelerations during labor by infusing sterile fluid into the amniotic cavity, which is not relevant to a client at 41 weeks of gestation with a positive contraction stress test. Chorionic villus sampling (D) is an invasive procedure to diagnose genetic abnormalities early in pregnancy and is not indicated for assessing fetal well-being at 41 weeks.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and is being tested for group B streptococcus ß-hemolytic (GBS). The client is multigravida and multipara with no history of GBS. She asks the nurse why the test was not conducted earlier in her pregnancy. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. You didn't report any symptoms of GBS during your pregnancy.'
- B. Your previous deliveries were all negative for GBS.'
- C. There was no indication of GBS in your earlier prenatal testing.'
- D. We need to know if you are positive for GBS at the time of delivery.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "We need to know if you are positive for GBS at the time of delivery." This response is appropriate because GBS status can change during pregnancy, and testing closer to the delivery date provides the most up-to-date information. Testing earlier in pregnancy may not accurately reflect the GBS status at the time of delivery.
Choice A is incorrect because the presence of symptoms is not a reliable indicator of GBS status. Choice B is incorrect as past negative GBS results do not guarantee the current status. Choice C is incorrect because GBS screening is typically done later in pregnancy regardless of earlier test results.
A school nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent about levonorgestrel contraception. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse.
- B. You should avoid taking this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive.
- C. If you don't start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test.
- D. One dose of this medication will prevent you from becoming pregnant for 14 days after taking it.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraception pill effective if taken within 72 hours post unprotected sex. This is crucial information for the adolescent to prevent pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect as it does not interact with oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as missing a period does not necessarily indicate pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as it only provides immediate protection, not for 14 days.
A nurse is observing a new guardian caring for their crying newborn who is bottle feeding. Which of the following actions by the guardian should the nurse recognize as a positive parenting behavior?
- A. Lays the newborn across their lap and gently sways
- B. Places the newborn in the crib in a prone position
- C. Offers the newborn a pacifier dipped in formula
- D. Prepares a bottle of formula mixed with rice cereal
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because laying the newborn across the lap and gently swaying helps provide comfort and bonding, mimicking the soothing motion in the womb. This action promotes a secure attachment between the guardian and the newborn. Placing the newborn in a crib in a prone position (B) is unsafe and increases the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Offering a pacifier dipped in formula (C) can introduce unnecessary calories and increase the risk of overfeeding. Preparing a bottle of formula mixed with rice cereal (D) is not appropriate for a newborn and can lead to digestive issues.