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A client with an artificial heart valve is prescribed warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin?
- A. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Bleeding time
- D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, such as factors II, VII, IX, and X. The prothrombin time (PT) measures the extrinsic pathway and is used to monitor the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. Monitoring PT helps assess the time it takes for the blood to clot, ensuring that the anticoagulant effect is within the desired range. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin (Hgb) measures the amount of hemoglobin in the blood, bleeding time assesses the time it takes for bleeding to stop, and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.
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A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is prescribed acetaminophen for pain. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Serum glucose
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum bilirubin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Acetaminophen is metabolized by the liver, so serum creatinine levels should be monitored for potential hepatotoxicity. Monitoring serum creatinine can help detect liver damage, a potential adverse effect of acetaminophen. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because serum glucose is not directly affected by acetaminophen, serum potassium is not typically monitored for acetaminophen adverse effects, and serum bilirubin is more related to bile metabolism rather than acetaminophen-induced hepatotoxicity.
A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes and a new prescription for 14 units of regular insulin and 28 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously at breakfast daily. What is the total number of units of insulin that the nurse should prepare in the insulin syringe?
- A. 14 units
- B. 28 units
- C. 32 units
- D. 42 units
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should combine both orders of insulin in the same syringe. To prepare the correct dose, the nurse should withdraw the regular insulin first (14 units) and then the NPH insulin (28 units), totaling 42 units. This combination ensures the client receives the prescribed doses of both types of insulin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the nurse needs to prepare and administer both types of insulin as prescribed, resulting in a total of 42 units in the syringe.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes flushing of the client's neck and chest. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Stop the infusion
- B. Document the findings as a harmless reaction
- C. Slow the infusion rate
- D. Administer diphenhydramine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving IV vancomycin shows flushing of the neck and chest is to slow the infusion rate. Flushing is a common sign of Red Man Syndrome, which is associated with rapid infusions of vancomycin. Slowing down the infusion rate can help prevent further flushing and the development of Red Man Syndrome. Stopping the infusion (Choice A) may be too drastic if the symptoms are mild and can be managed by slowing the rate. Documenting the findings as a harmless reaction (Choice B) is incorrect because flushing should be addressed promptly to prevent complications. Administering diphenhydramine (Choice D) is not the initial or best intervention for flushing associated with vancomycin; slowing the infusion rate is the priority.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following client findings indicates the need for immediate intervention?
- A. Productive cough
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Vomiting
- D. Polyuria
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Polyuria is a sign of theophylline toxicity and requires immediate intervention. Theophylline toxicity can lead to serious complications, and polyuria is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for urgent medical attention. Productive cough, drowsiness, and vomiting are common side effects of theophylline but are not typically indicative of immediate life-threatening issues like polyuria in the context of theophylline toxicity.
A nurse is reviewing a client's new prescription for albuterol. What client education should the nurse provide?
- A. You may experience a dry cough after taking this medication
- B. Use this medication only as a rescue inhaler
- C. Take this medication with food to avoid nausea
- D. Use this medication daily to prevent asthma attacks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Albuterol is a rescue inhaler that should be used during asthma attacks to provide quick relief by opening the airways. Using it daily as a preventive measure is not recommended. Choice A is incorrect because a dry cough is not a common side effect of albuterol. Choice C is incorrect as albuterol does not need to be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because albuterol is not meant to be used daily for asthma prevention.