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A healthcare provider is checking a newborn's vital signs. Which of the following methods of temperature measurement should the healthcare provider use?
- A. Rectal
- B. Axillary
- C. Oral
- D. Tympanic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The axillary method is the most appropriate for newborns because it is non-invasive and safe. Rectal temperature measurement can be uncomfortable and poses a risk of injury, especially in newborns. Oral temperature measurement is not recommended for newborns due to their inability to cooperate and potential inaccuracies. Tympanic temperature measurement may not be as accurate in newborns compared to older children or adults.
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A nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to a school-age child. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Insert the suppository 1 cm into the rectum
- B. Insert the suppository 2 cm into the rectum
- C. Insert the suppository past the anal sphincters
- D. Insert the suppository using two fingers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Insert the suppository past the anal sphincters.' When administering a rectal suppository, it is essential to insert it past the anal sphincters to ensure proper placement and absorption. Choices A and B are incorrect because the suppository should be inserted further than just 1 or 2 cm into the rectum to reach the optimal absorption site. Choice D is incorrect as using two fingers is not necessary and may cause discomfort to the child.
How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with anemia?
- A. Monitor hemoglobin levels and provide iron supplements
- B. Administer B12 injections
- C. Monitor for signs of infection and administer folic acid
- D. Administer oxygen therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: To assess and manage a patient with anemia, monitoring hemoglobin levels and providing iron supplements are crucial. Anemia is commonly caused by iron deficiency, making iron supplementation a cornerstone of treatment. B12 injections (Choice B) are more relevant for treating megaloblastic anemia, not the typical iron-deficiency anemia. Monitoring for signs of infection and administering folic acid (Choice C) are important in specific types of anemia like megaloblastic anemia, but not the first-line approach for anemia management. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for anemia unless severe hypoxemia is present, which is not typically seen in anemia.
A client has a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Place the tablet under the tongue and wait 10 minutes
- B. Take up to five tablets during an angina episode
- C. Take up to three tablets during a single angina episode
- D. Swallow the tablet with water
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take up to three tablets during a single angina episode.' Nitroglycerin can be taken up to three times during an episode to relieve angina. Choice A is incorrect because the client should place the tablet under the tongue and wait for it to dissolve, not wait for 10 minutes. Choice B is incorrect because taking up to five tablets during an angina episode is excessive and not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets are meant to be taken sublingually, not swallowed.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and is receiving oxytocin for labor induction. The nurse notes early decelerations on the fetal heart rate monitor. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse take?
- A. Continue to monitor the fetal heart rate.
- B. Stop the oxytocin infusion.
- C. Perform a vaginal examination.
- D. Initiate an amnioinfusion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for early decelerations, which are caused by fetal head compression and are considered normal during labor, is to continue monitoring the fetal heart rate. Early decelerations mirror contractions and usually do not require any intervention. Stopping the oxytocin infusion (Choice B) is not necessary as early decelerations are not typically a cause for concern related to oxytocin. Performing a vaginal examination (Choice C) or initiating an amnioinfusion (Choice D) are unnecessary and not indicated specifically for early decelerations.
What are the signs of opioid withdrawal, and how should it be managed?
- A. Sweating, nausea; administer methadone
- B. Muscle cramps, vomiting; administer naloxone
- C. Tremors, sweating; administer buprenorphine
- D. Fever, agitation; provide sedatives
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The signs of opioid withdrawal typically include sweating and nausea. The correct management approach involves administering methadone to alleviate the symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for managing withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as buprenorphine is typically used to treat opioid addiction, not just withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as sedatives are not the primary treatment for opioid withdrawal.