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A client is admitted with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. What is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to assess the effectiveness of heparin as an anticoagulant. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is important to assess for thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of heparin, but it is not the primary laboratory value to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
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The nurse is caring for a 24-month-old toddler who has sensory sensitivity, difficulty engaging in social interactions, and has not yet spoken two-word phrases. Which assessment should the nurse administer?
- A. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test
- B. The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT)
- C. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence
- D. Denver Developmental Screening Test
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT) is specifically designed to screen for autism spectrum disorders in young children. It is appropriate for this child, given the signs of social and communication delays. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (Choice A) assesses receptive vocabulary and may not capture the social and communication aspects seen in autism. The Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (Choice C) measures cognitive ability and may not address the social and communication delays. The Denver Developmental Screening Test (Choice D) is a broad developmental assessment tool, but the M-CHAT is more specific to screening for autism in this case.
The psychiatric nurse is caring for clients in an adolescent unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. A 17-year-old client with schizophrenia who is pacing the hallways
- B. An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior who is being yelled at by other clients
- C. A 16-year-old client with depression who refuses to eat meals
- D. A 15-year-old client with anxiety who is quietly reading in a corner
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client with antisocial behavior being yelled at by peers may escalate the situation, potentially leading to violence or self-harm. Addressing the situation quickly helps prevent harm and de-escalates the conflict. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate risks that require urgent intervention compared to the potential danger of a conflict escalating to violence with the client exhibiting antisocial behavior.
A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky, dizzy, and sweaty. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 55 mg/dL. What is the nurse's next action?
- A. Give the client a glucagon injection
- B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
- C. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
- D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which should be treated with a fast-acting carbohydrate to quickly raise the blood sugar. Administering 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, is the appropriate initial intervention for hypoglycemia. Giving a glucagon injection is reserved for severe cases or when the client is unconscious. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for treating acute hypoglycemia, as it is a slower-acting form of glucose. Rechecking the blood glucose level is important but should occur after providing immediate treatment to raise the blood sugar level.
An S3 heart sound is auscultated in a client in her third trimester of pregnancy. What intervention should the nurse take?
- A. Perform a 12-lead electrocardiogram
- B. Document in the client's record
- C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- D. Assess for signs of heart failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An S3 heart sound is often a normal finding in pregnant women due to increased blood volume and cardiac output. The nurse should document the finding as part of the routine assessment unless accompanied by other abnormal symptoms. Performing a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice A) is unnecessary for a normal S3 heart sound in pregnancy. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is premature and may lead to unnecessary interventions. Assessing for signs of heart failure (Choice D) is not indicated as an isolated S3 heart sound is typically benign in pregnancy.
A nurse is caring for a 73-year-old male client with Alzheimer's disease. Which action should the nurse take to enhance the client's nutritional intake?
- A. Encourage the client to eat large meals in one sitting.
- B. Offer the client frequent snacks of foods he enjoys.
- C. Provide the client with foods high in fiber to improve digestion.
- D. Discourage eating late at night to prevent weight gain.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Offering frequent snacks of foods the client enjoys is the most appropriate action to enhance the nutritional intake of a client with Alzheimer's disease. This approach helps to ensure that the client receives an adequate amount of nutrients throughout the day, especially when larger meals might be challenging for individuals with Alzheimer's. Encouraging large meals in one sitting (Choice A) may overwhelm the client and lead to decreased food intake. While foods high in fiber (Choice C) are beneficial for digestion, the primary focus should be on providing foods the client enjoys to increase intake. Discouraging eating late at night (Choice D) is not directly related to enhancing nutritional intake in this scenario.