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A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed anticoagulants. What should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Monitor for signs of bleeding, such as bruising.
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs every hour.
- C. Monitor for pain in the affected limb.
- D. Assess for signs of pulmonary embolism, such as sudden shortness of breath.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In clients with DVT, assessing for pulmonary embolism is crucial as a clot in the lungs can be life-threatening. Sudden shortness of breath or chest pain are key signs of a pulmonary embolism. While monitoring for signs of bleeding is important due to anticoagulant therapy, the immediate concern is detecting a potential pulmonary embolism. Monitoring vital signs and pain in the affected limb are relevant aspects of care but are not as urgent as assessing for pulmonary embolism in this scenario.
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A client with pneumonia is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Client's respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 20 breaths per minute
- B. White blood cell count decreases to normal range
- C. Client reports increased energy levels
- D. Cough becomes productive with green sputum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment and the client's condition is improving. Monitoring the white blood cell count is a more objective indicator of the body's response to the antibiotics. Choices A, C, and D may also be positive signs, but they are less specific and may vary among individuals. Respiratory rate alone may not be sufficient to indicate improvement, as other factors can influence it. Energy levels and cough characteristics are subjective and may not always correlate with the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment.
Following a lumbar puncture, a client complains of worsening headache when sitting up. What complication is the client likely experiencing?
- A. A migraine headache
- B. An infection from the puncture site
- C. Low blood sugar
- D. Spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client is likely experiencing spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache), a common complication of a lumbar puncture. This leakage results in a reduction of cerebrospinal fluid volume around the brain and spinal cord, leading to a headache that worsens when in an upright position due to reduced buoyancy. A migraine headache (Choice A) is not typically associated with a lumbar puncture. Infection from the puncture site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of inflammation, such as redness, swelling, and warmth, rather than worsening headache. Low blood sugar (Choice C) is not a common complication of lumbar puncture and would not typically manifest as a worsening headache when sitting up.
A client has been receiving hydromorphone every six hours for four days. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Increase the dosage of the medication.
- B. Auscultate bowel sounds.
- C. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- D. Check the client's respiratory rate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hydromorphone can cause constipation, a common side effect of opioids. Therefore, it is crucial to auscultate bowel sounds to monitor for signs of decreased gastrointestinal motility. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are important but not the priority in this scenario as constipation is a common issue with opioid use. Increasing the dosage of the medication (choice A) is not appropriate without assessing the client's bowel function first.
A client with asthma is experiencing wheezing. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator immediately.
- B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
- C. Perform a chest x-ray to assess lung function.
- D. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer a bronchodilator immediately. Wheezing in a client with asthma indicates bronchoconstriction, which can compromise airflow. Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention as it helps to open the airways, relieve bronchoconstriction, and improve breathing. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority when the airways are constricted. Performing a chest x-ray (choice C) is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) may provide some relief, but administering a bronchodilator to address the bronchoconstriction is the priority intervention.
Which meal option should the nurse recommend for a client with renal disease who is following a low-protein diet?
- A. Grilled chicken with steamed vegetables
- B. Tofu stir-fry with rice
- C. Pasta with marinara sauce
- D. Baked salmon with quinoa
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pasta with marinara sauce. Clients with renal disease following a low-protein diet should opt for lower-protein options. Pasta with marinara sauce is a suitable choice as it is lower in protein compared to grilled chicken, tofu, or salmon. Grilled chicken, tofu, and salmon are higher in protein content and are not ideal for individuals following a low-protein diet for renal disease as they may strain the kidneys.