Nokea
A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who reports a latex allergy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a supine position.
- B. Use non-latex gloves when administering the medication.
- C. Use latex-free syringes when administering the medication.
- D. Administer the medication through a latex-free IV port.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when preparing to administer an IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This measure helps prevent allergic reactions in clients with a known latex allergy. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is not directly related to preventing a latex allergy reaction. Using non-latex gloves (Choice B) is important for protecting the nurse or caregiver from latex exposure but does not prevent the client's allergic reaction. While using latex-free syringes (Choice C) is a good practice, ensuring the IV port is latex-free is more crucial in preventing an allergic response in the client.
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A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving gentamicin for a wound infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 25 mg/dL
- B. Serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL
- C. Serum glucose 110 mg/dL
- D. White blood cell (WBC) count 5,000/mm3
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An elevated BUN level indicates possible nephrotoxicity, which is a side effect of gentamicin and should be reported. Elevated serum creatinine and WBC count are not specifically related to gentamicin therapy. Normal serum glucose levels are also within the expected range.
A nurse is assessing a client who is immediately postoperative following a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the following should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Calcium gluconate
- B. Sodium bicarbonate
- C. Potassium chloride
- D. Sodium phosphate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the correct answer because it is administered to treat hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy. After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, which can lead to a decrease in calcium levels. Administering calcium gluconate helps to raise calcium levels. Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is not typically indicated for immediate postoperative care following a subtotal thyroidectomy. Potassium chloride (Choice C) is not directly related to the common complications of this specific surgery. Sodium phosphate (Choice D) is not typically used to address immediate postoperative issues post-thyroidectomy.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse use to monitor the client's therapeutic response to the medication?
- A. INR
- B. aPTT
- C. Platelet count
- D. Hemoglobin A1C
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic response of warfarin. It helps ensure that the client's clotting time is within the desired range to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding or clotting. Choice B, aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy but rather for assessing heparin therapy. Choice C, Platelet count, assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specifically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, Hemoglobin A1C, is a test used to monitor long-term blood sugar control in diabetic patients and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy.
A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing acute mania. What intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
- B. Withdraw TV privileges if the client does not attend group therapy.
- C. Place the client in seclusion during periods of anxiety.
- D. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods. During acute mania, individuals often experience high levels of energy, decreased need for sleep, and increased activity levels. Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods can help prevent exhaustion and promote better self-regulation. Choice B is incorrect because withdrawing TV privileges may not be directly related to managing acute mania. Choice C is incorrect as placing the client in seclusion can exacerbate feelings of anxiety and agitation. Choice D is incorrect as spending time in the day room may not address the need for rest and relaxation that is crucial during acute mania.