Nokea
A client is preparing to undergo a cystoscopy for stones. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the procedure?
- A. I better drink a lot of fluid now because I won't be able to after the test.
- B. I will probably see a little blood when I urinate.
- C. I will be able to go home after 3 days in the hospital.
- D. I won't need any pain medicine; this probably will not hurt.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will probably see a little blood when I urinate.' During a cystoscopy, a scope is inserted into the client's bladder to inspect structures or remove objects like stones. This procedure is usually performed under local or general anesthesia. It is common for clients to experience a small amount of blood in their urine (hematuria) or have pink-colored urine after the procedure. The other choices are incorrect because drinking a lot of fluid before the test, staying in the hospital for 3 days, and assuming no pain will be experienced are not accurate statements related to a cystoscopy procedure.
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Which of the following conditions increases a client's risk of aspiration of stomach contents?
- A. A client is in restraints
- B. A client has a scaphoid abdomen
- C. A client is lying prone
- D. More than one answer is correct
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client in restraints is at an increased risk of aspiration of stomach contents. When a client is restrained, they may be unable to effectively move or turn their body if they begin to vomit, which can lead to aspiration. This lack of mobility can hinder their ability to protect their airway. On the other hand, a scaphoid abdomen, which is sunken or hollowed, is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Additionally, lying prone, facing downward, does not necessarily increase the risk of aspiration, as aspiration is more likely when lying supine (facing upward). Therefore, the correct answer is that a client is in restraints.
A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?
- A. Delirium
- B. Muscle rigidity
- C. Hypotension
- D. Pinpoint rash
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.
A client has started sweating profusely due to intense heat. His overall
luid volume is low and he has developed electrolyte imbalance. This
client is most likely suffering from:
- A. Malignant hyperthermia
- B. Heat exhaustion
- C. Heat stroke
- D. Heat cramps
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heat exhaustion occurs when a person has enough
diaphoresis that he becomes dehydrated. Intense sweating can cause
both luid and electrolyte imbalances. Untreated heat exhaustion can
lead to heat stroke, which results in organ damage, loss of
consciousness, or death.
A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day #1 after a total hip replacement. Although the client was alert with a normal affect in the morning, by lunchtime, the nurse notes the client is confused, has slurred speech, and is having trouble with her balance. Her blood glucose level is 48 mg/dl. What is the next action of the nurse?
- A. Contact the physician immediately
- B. Administer a bolus of 50 cc of D20W through the IV
- C. Administer 10 units of regular insulin
- D. Give the client 6 oz. of orange juice
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A client with a blood glucose level of 48 mg/dl is experiencing significant hypoglycemia, as manifested by confusion, balance difficulties, and slurred speech. The nurse should work to correct this situation as rapidly as possible. The first measure that can be performed quickly and will have fast results is to give the client something to eat or drink that contains glucose, such as 6 oz. of orange juice. Administering a bolus of D20W through the IV (Choice B) would be too aggressive and could lead to complications in this scenario. Administering regular insulin (Choice C) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's symptoms. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but immediate intervention to raise the blood glucose level is crucial to address the client's hypoglycemia.
A client is having blood tests and has an elevated lymphocyte level. Based on knowledge of cellular components, what does the nurse know about these cells?
- A. Contain histamine and provide protection during allergic reactions
- B. Are involved in phagocytosis
- C. Provide protection and immunity against foreign substances
- D. Carry hemoglobin and oxygen to body tissues
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in supporting the body's immune system. They are responsible for producing substances that protect the body against infections and foreign substances that could potentially harm the client. Lymphocytes consist of two main types: T cells, which are produced in the thymus, and B cells, which are produced in the lymphatic tissue. Choice A is incorrect because histamine is mainly associated with basophils and mast cells, not lymphocytes. Choice B is incorrect as phagocytosis is a function of other white blood cells such as neutrophils and macrophages. Choice D is also incorrect as carrying hemoglobin and oxygen is a function of red blood cells, not lymphocytes.