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A client who is 4 hours postpartum following a vaginal delivery is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Saturated perineal pad in 30 minutes
- B. Deep tendon reflexes 4+
- C. Fundus at the level of the umbilicus
- D. Approximated edges of episiotomy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a client who is 4 hours postpartum, a saturated perineal pad within 30 minutes is a priority finding as it may indicate excessive postpartum bleeding (hemorrhage), which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as hypovolemic shock. Deep tendon reflexes being 4+ is within normal limits postpartum. The fundus at the level of the umbilicus is an expected finding at this time frame, indicating proper involution of the uterus. Approximated edges of an episiotomy suggest proper healing.
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A client who was admitted to the maternity unit at 38 weeks of gestation and who is experiencing polyhydramnios is found to have which of the following?
- A. The client is carrying more than one fetus
- B. There is an elevated level of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid
- C. An excessive amount of amniotic fluid is present
- D. The fetus is likely to have a congenital anomaly, be growth restricted, or demonstrate fetal distress during labor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Polyhydramnios refers to the presence of an excessive amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus. This condition can result from various causes, such as maternal diabetes, fetal anomalies, or genetic disorders. It can lead to complications during pregnancy and delivery, such as preterm labor, placental abruption, or fetal malpresentation. Understanding this diagnosis is crucial for providing appropriate care and monitoring to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.
A client at 22 weeks of gestation with uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus may require medication. Which of the following medications would the provider likely prescribe?
- A. Acarbose
- B. Repaglinide
- C. Glyburide
- D. Glipizide
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glyburide is commonly prescribed for gestational diabetes mellitus when diet and exercise are insufficient to control blood sugar levels. It is considered safe and effective during pregnancy, making it a suitable choice for managing diabetes in pregnant individuals. Acarbose, Repaglinide, and Glipizide are not typically recommended for use in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.
A client in labor at 40 weeks of gestation has saturated two perineal pads in the past 30 min. The nurse suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Examination to determine cervical status
- B. A magnesium sulfate infusion
- C. Initiation of pushing
- D. Preparation for cesarean birth
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which is concerning for placenta previa. The appropriate nursing action in this situation is to prepare for a cesarean birth. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor. It is crucial to avoid vaginal examinations or initiation of pushing as these actions can exacerbate bleeding. A magnesium sulfate infusion is not indicated in the management of placenta previa. Therefore, the priority intervention is to prepare for a cesarean birth to ensure the safety of the mother and the baby.
When admitting a client at 33 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of placenta previa, which action should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Monitor vaginal bleeding
- B. Administer glucocorticoids
- C. Insert an IV catheter
- D. Apply an external fetal monitor
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding. When admitting a client with placenta previa, the priority is to assess the fetal well-being. Applying an external fetal monitor helps in continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate and ensures timely detection of any distress or changes in the fetal status, which is crucial in managing this condition. While monitoring vaginal bleeding is important, identifying fetal well-being takes precedence in this situation.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The provider should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?
- A. Hydrops fetalis
- B. Hypobilirubinemia
- C. Biliary atresia
- D. Transient clotting difficulties
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) caused by Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a risk of sensitization during pregnancy or childbirth. Sensitization can lead to the production of antibodies that may attack Rh-positive red blood cells in future pregnancies, potentially causing severe hemolytic disease in the newborn, including complications like hydrops fetalis. Hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by severe edema and fetal organ enlargement due to severe anemia and heart failure in the fetus.