Nokea
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel-training program following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Increase the amount of refined grains in the client's diet.
- B. Provide the client with a cold drink prior to defecation.
- C. Administer a cathartic suppository 30 min prior to scheduled defecation times
- D. Encourage a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 mL per day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer a cathartic suppository 30 min prior to scheduled defecation times. This action helps stimulate bowel movement in clients with spinal cord injuries by promoting peristalsis and aiding in bowel evacuation. Increasing refined grains (choice A) may not directly address the bowel-training program. Providing a cold drink (choice B) may not have a significant impact on bowel movements. Restricting fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day (choice D) can lead to dehydration and worsen constipation.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage liver disease and is undergoing a paracentesis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the procedure?
- A. Examine for leakage at the site of the procedure.
- B. Compare the client's current weight with preprocedure weight.
- C. Confirm that the client is able to urinate.
- D. Check the client's serum albumin levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Compare the client's current weight with preprocedure weight. This is because paracentesis is a procedure used to remove fluid buildup in the abdomen, which can lead to weight loss. By comparing the client's current weight with the preprocedure weight, the nurse can evaluate the effectiveness of the procedure in draining the excess fluid. This comparison helps determine the amount of fluid removed and assess the client's response to the treatment.
Explanations for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Examining for leakage at the site of the procedure is important for monitoring for potential complications but does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the procedure.
C: Confirming that the client is able to urinate is important for assessing kidney function but does not specifically evaluate the effectiveness of the paracentesis.
D: Checking the client's serum albumin levels may provide information about the client's liver function and nutritional status but does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the paracentesis procedure.
A nurse is caring for a client who asks for information regarding organ donation. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. I cannot be a witness for your consent to donate.
- B. You must be at least 21 years of age to become an organ donor.
- C. Your desire to be an organ donor must be documented in writing.
- D. Your name cannot be removed once you are listed on the organ donor list.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C: Your desire to be an organ donor must be documented in writing. This is the correct answer because in order for someone to become an organ donor, their wish to donate organs after death must be formally documented. This ensures that their wishes are legally binding and will be respected. It also helps healthcare providers and family members honor the individual's decision.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: This response does not provide the necessary information about organ donation.
B: Age requirements for organ donation may vary by country or region, but it is not a universal rule.
D: Individuals can opt-out of being an organ donor at any time, so this statement is false.
E, F, G: No information given, so it is unclear if these choices are relevant to organ donation.
A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds. Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?
- A. First-degree atrioventricular block
- B. Complete heart block
- C. Premature atrial complexes
- D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree atrioventricular block. A constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles. In first-degree AV block, the delay causes a prolonged P-R interval, which is consistent with the 0.35 seconds observed. This dysrhythmia is characterized by a consistent delay but all atrial impulses are conducted to the ventricles.
B: Complete heart block would show a lack of association between P waves and QRS complexes, with no relationship between atrial and ventricular activity.
C: Premature atrial complexes are early electrical impulses originating in the atria, resulting in abnormal P waves and irregular rhythm, not a constant P-R interval.
D: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by chaotic electrical activity in the atria, leading to an irregularly irregular ventricular response, not a constant P-R interval.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has insomnia. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should turn on the ceiling fan to block out unwanted noise.
- B. I will limit my daily nap to 45 minutes.
- C. I will drink a cup of green tea at bedtime to help me sleep.
- D. I should get out of bed if I cannot fall asleep within an hour of lying down.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Limiting naps to 45 minutes can help improve nighttime sleep in individuals with insomnia by reducing excessive daytime sleepiness and ensuring better sleep quality at night. Longer naps can disrupt the body's natural sleep-wake cycle and make it harder to fall asleep at night. This statement shows an understanding of the importance of sleep hygiene practices for managing insomnia.
Summary:
A: Turning on the ceiling fan may help create white noise, but it does not address the underlying issue of improving sleep quality.
C: Drinking green tea before bedtime can actually worsen insomnia due to its caffeine content.
D: Getting out of bed if unable to sleep within an hour can disrupt the sleep routine and make it harder to fall asleep.
Therefore, the correct choice is B as it directly addresses the management of insomnia by improving sleep habits.
A nurse is caring for a client who reports xerostomia following radiation therapy to the mandible. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Suggest rinsing his mouth with an alcohol-based mouthwash
- B. Provide humidification of the room air
- C. Offer the client saltine crackers between meals
- D. Instruct the client on the use of esophageal speech
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide humidification of the room air. Xerostomia is dry mouth often caused by radiation therapy, which can lead to discomfort and difficulty swallowing. Humidifying the room air can help alleviate dryness, making it easier for the client to breathe and swallow. Alcohol-based mouthwash (A) can worsen dryness due to its drying effect. Saltine crackers (C) can be difficult to swallow with a dry mouth. Esophageal speech (D) is not relevant to xerostomia.