Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who has herpes zoster and asks the nurse about the use of complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that this condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?
- A. Biofeedback
- B. Aloe
- C. Herbal remedies
- D. Acupuncture
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Biofeedback. Biofeedback involves monitoring and controlling bodily functions to reduce pain and stress. In the case of herpes zoster, the skin lesions can be very sensitive, making it uncomfortable for the client to participate in biofeedback sessions. Additionally, the focus required for biofeedback may be challenging for someone experiencing pain from herpes zoster.
B: Aloe is a natural remedy that can be used topically to soothe skin irritations, including herpes zoster lesions. However, it may not provide adequate pain control.
C: Herbal remedies can be used to help manage pain in herpes zoster, such as capsaicin cream. While some herbal remedies may interact with medications, there is no general contraindication for their use in herpes zoster.
D: Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that involves inserting thin needles into specific points on the body to alleviate pain. It can be effective for pain relief in herpes zoster and is not contraindicated
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A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds. Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?
- A. First-degree atrioventricular block
- B. Complete heart block
- C. Premature atrial complexes
- D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree atrioventricular block. A constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles. In first-degree AV block, the delay causes a prolonged P-R interval, which is consistent with the 0.35 seconds observed. This dysrhythmia is characterized by a consistent delay but all atrial impulses are conducted to the ventricles.
B: Complete heart block would show a lack of association between P waves and QRS complexes, with no relationship between atrial and ventricular activity.
C: Premature atrial complexes are early electrical impulses originating in the atria, resulting in abnormal P waves and irregular rhythm, not a constant P-R interval.
D: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by chaotic electrical activity in the atria, leading to an irregularly irregular ventricular response, not a constant P-R interval.
A nurse is caring for a client who has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?
- A. Contact
- B. Droplet
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Droplet precautions. Pharyngeal diphtheria is primarily spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Droplet precautions involve wearing a mask and eye protection within 3 feet of the patient to prevent the transmission of respiratory secretions. Contact precautions (Choice A) are for diseases transmitted through direct contact with the patient or contaminated surfaces. Airborne precautions (Choice C) are for diseases spread through tiny particles that can remain suspended in the air for long periods. Protective precautions (Choice D) are not a standard precaution type.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about advance directives with a client who has end-stage renal disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I know that I can change my advance directives if needed in the future.
- B. My healthcare proxy will make decisions as soon as I sign the power of attorney.
- C. My family can overrule the decisions made by my healthcare proxy.
- D. Advance directives from one state are valid in any other state.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Option A is correct because it shows the client understands that advance directives can be modified. This is crucial as preferences may change over time. Option B is incorrect as the healthcare proxy only makes decisions when the client cannot. Option C is incorrect as the healthcare proxy's decisions are legally binding. Option D is incorrect because advance directives must comply with state laws and may not be universally recognized.
A nurse is caring for a client who reports xerostomia following radiation therapy to the mandible. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Suggest rinsing his mouth with an alcohol-based mouthwash
- B. Provide humidification of the room air
- C. Offer the client saltine crackers between meals
- D. Instruct the client on the use of esophageal speech
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide humidification of the room air. Xerostomia is dry mouth often caused by radiation therapy, which can lead to discomfort and difficulty swallowing. Humidifying the room air can help alleviate dryness, making it easier for the client to breathe and swallow. Alcohol-based mouthwash (A) can worsen dryness due to its drying effect. Saltine crackers (C) can be difficult to swallow with a dry mouth. Esophageal speech (D) is not relevant to xerostomia.
A newly licensed nurse working at an HIV clinic is reviewing the responsibilities of her position at the clinic. Which of the following tasks should the nurse identify as tertiary prevention?
- A. Using an electronic messaging system to remind clients when to take medications.
- B. Educating clients about contraindications to specific immunizations.
- C. Helping clients understand health screenings covered by their insurance plans.
- D. Providing clients with information about the benefits of exercise.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using an electronic messaging system to remind clients when to take medications is an example of tertiary prevention. Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and minimizing the impact of a disease or condition to prevent complications or further deterioration. By reminding clients to take their medications, the nurse is helping to prevent disease progression and improve health outcomes.
Choice B, educating clients about contraindications to specific immunizations, is an example of secondary prevention as it aims to detect and treat a disease early to prevent complications.
Choice C, helping clients understand health screenings covered by their insurance plans, is an example of primary prevention as it aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition.
Choice D, providing clients with information about the benefits of exercise, is also an example of primary prevention as it focuses on promoting overall health and preventing the development of diseases.