A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry with the client.
- B. Determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer.
- C. Document the client's refusal to participate in health restorative activities.
- D. Administer a pain medication to the client.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer. The priority is to assess the client's reasons for refusal to address any barriers preventing compliance, such as fear, pain, or lack of understanding. Understanding the client's perspective can help tailor interventions and address concerns effectively. Requesting a respiratory therapist (choice A) or administering pain medication (choice D) can be secondary once the client's reasons are identified. Simply documenting the refusal (choice C) without addressing the underlying cause does not promote client-centered care.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Oliguria
- B. Hypotension
- C. Weight loss
- D. Hematuria
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hematuria. In acute glomerulonephritis, there is inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys, leading to blood in the urine. This is due to damage to the glomerular capillaries allowing red blood cells to leak into the urine. Oliguria (A) is not a common finding as there is usually normal to increased urine output. Hypotension (B) is not typically seen as glomerulonephritis can lead to fluid overload and hypertension. Weight loss (C) is unlikely as fluid retention is common. Hematuria (D) is the hallmark finding due to the damage to glomeruli.
A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
- A. Regulate the flow rate by aligning the rate with the top of the ball inside the flow meter.
- B. Regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate of no more than 6 L/min
- C. Make sure the reservoir bag of a partial rebreathing mask remains deflated.
- D. Use petroleum jelly to lubricate the client's nares, face, and lips.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate of no more than 6 L/min. This is the correct action because excessive oxygen flow can lead to oxygen toxicity and respiratory depression in patients. Nasal cannulas are commonly used for oxygen therapy and a flow rate of more than 6 L/min can cause discomfort and dryness of the nasal passages. It is important to adhere to evidence-based practice guidelines to ensure patient safety and well-being.
Choice A is incorrect because aligning the flow rate with the top of the ball inside the flow meter is not a reliable method for regulating oxygen flow. Choice C is incorrect as the reservoir bag of a partial rebreathing mask should remain inflated to ensure an adequate oxygen supply. Choice D is incorrect as petroleum jelly should not be used in oxygen therapy due to the risk of flammability.
A nurse is setting up a sterile field to perform wound irrigation for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when pouring the sterile solution?
- A. Remove the cap and place it sterile-side up on a clean surface.
- B. Place sterile gauze over areas of spilled solution within the sterile field.
- C. Hold the bottle in the center of the sterile field when pouring the solution.
- D. Hold the irrigation solution bottle with the label facing away from the palm of the hand.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because when setting up a sterile field, it is essential to maintain sterility. By removing the cap and placing it sterile-side up on a clean surface, the nurse ensures that the inside of the cap, which will come in contact with the solution, remains sterile. Placing the cap sterile-side up prevents contamination and maintains the integrity of the sterile field.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Placing sterile gauze over spilled solution does not address the primary concern of maintaining sterility. Holding the bottle in the center of the sterile field or with the label facing away from the palm does not directly impact the sterility of the solution. Therefore, they are not the best actions to take when pouring the sterile solution during wound irrigation.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has hypertension and a prescription to measure her blood pressure daily. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will wait 15 minutes after drinking coffee to measure my blood pressure.
- B. I will measure my blood pressure while my arm is elevated above my heart.
- C. I should remove constrictive clothing prior to measuring my blood pressure.
- D. I should measure my blood pressure immediately after eating breakfast.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I should remove constrictive clothing prior to measuring my blood pressure." Removing constrictive clothing ensures accurate blood pressure measurement by allowing the cuff to fit properly on the arm without any restrictions, leading to a more reliable reading. Choice A is incorrect as coffee can temporarily increase blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because the arm should be at heart level, not elevated. Choice D is incorrect as blood pressure should be measured on an empty stomach for accuracy.
A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds. Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?
- A. First-degree atrioventricular block
- B. Complete heart block
- C. Premature atrial complexes
- D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree atrioventricular block. A constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles. In first-degree AV block, the delay causes a prolonged P-R interval, which is consistent with the 0.35 seconds observed. This dysrhythmia is characterized by a consistent delay but all atrial impulses are conducted to the ventricles.
B: Complete heart block would show a lack of association between P waves and QRS complexes, with no relationship between atrial and ventricular activity.
C: Premature atrial complexes are early electrical impulses originating in the atria, resulting in abnormal P waves and irregular rhythm, not a constant P-R interval.
D: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by chaotic electrical activity in the atria, leading to an irregularly irregular ventricular response, not a constant P-R interval.