Nokea
How is viral multiplication detected in cell culture?
- A. by the presence of a specific cytopathic effect
- B. by using an immunofluorescence detection method
- C. the characteristic type of viral colonies
- D. A and B both
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because viral multiplication in cell culture can be detected by observing a specific cytopathic effect (A) caused by viral infection in cells and by using an immunofluorescence detection method (B) to visualize viral antigens within the cells. Choice C, the characteristic type of viral colonies, is incorrect as viral multiplication is not typically detected by observing viral colonies in cell culture. Option D is the correct choice as both A and B methods are commonly used to detect viral multiplication in cell culture.
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The bacteria that produces a thick pseudomembrane in the throat is:
- A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
- B. Streptococcus pyogenes
- C. Neisseria meningitidis
- D. Bacillus cereus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is the correct answer as it is the bacteria responsible for causing diphtheria, characterized by a thick pseudomembrane in the throat.
2. Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat but does not produce a pseudomembrane.
3. Neisseria meningitidis causes meningitis and septicemia, not a throat pseudomembrane.
4. Bacillus cereus causes food poisoning, not throat-related symptoms.
A patient with a productive cough and fever had a sputum smear revealing Gram-positive cocci in clusters. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Staphylococcus aureus
- B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- C. Neisseria meningitidis
- D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium that forms clusters and commonly causes pneumonia with a productive cough and fever. It is frequently found in sputum smears in such cases. Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) is another common cause of pneumonia but typically appears in pairs or chains, not clusters. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus that causes meningitis, not pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacterium that can cause pneumonia but appears as Gram-negative rods, not Gram-positive cocci in clusters.
The suffix -virales is given to the following terms within the taxon
- A. Species
- B. Order
- C. Family
- D. Genus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Order. The suffix -virales is used in virology to denote the order level in the taxonomy of viruses. Orders are higher taxonomic ranks compared to species, family, and genus. The suffix -virales is specifically assigned to virus orders, making choice B the correct one. The other choices (A, C, D) are incorrect because the suffix -virales does not apply to species, family, or genus in the taxonomic classification of viruses.
A patient who came to the doctor because of his infertility was administered to make tests for toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea. Which reaction should be performed to reveal latent toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea in this patient?
- A. RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay
- B. RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay
- C. IFA - Immunofluorescence assay
- D. Immunoblot analysis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IFA - Immunofluorescence assay. Toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhea can be detected using serological tests like IFA. IFA detects specific antibodies in the patient's serum by using fluorescently labeled antibodies. This method is highly sensitive and specific for detecting both acute and latent infections.
Explanation of Incorrect Choices:
A: RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay - This test is not commonly used for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea.
B: RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay - This test is not typically used for these specific infections.
D: Immunoblot analysis - While Immunoblot analysis is a useful confirmatory test for certain infections, it is not the primary method for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea.
An 18-year-old patient has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes, they are painless, thickened on palpation. In the area of genital mucous membrane there is a small-sized ulcer with thickened edges and "laquer"bottom of greyish colour. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Syphilis
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Lepra
- D. Trophic ulcer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilis. The presentation of painless inguinal lymph nodes, along with a small-sized ulcer with thickened edges and a "laquer" bottom of greyish color on the genital mucous membrane, is classic for primary syphilis. The painless nature of the lymph nodes and the specific characteristics of the ulcer are key features of syphilitic infection. Primary syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum and typically presents with a single, painless ulcer known as a chancre. It is important to consider syphilis in the differential diagnosis of genital ulcers.
Summary of other choices:
B: Tuberculosis - Unlikely, as tuberculosis typically presents with pulmonary symptoms and does not cause genital ulcers.
C: Lepra - Unlikely, as leprosy does not typically present with painless inguinal lymph nodes and the specific ulcer characteristics described.
D: Trophic ulcer - Unlikely