Nokea
Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching for a client who is to begin taking tamoxifen for the treatment of breast cancer?
- A. Urinary retention
- B. Constipation
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hot flashes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hot flashes. Tamoxifen is known to cause hot flashes as a common side effect due to its estrogen-blocking properties. This is important to include in teaching as it can affect the client's quality of life. Urinary retention (A), constipation (B), and bradycardia (C) are not commonly associated with tamoxifen use. Hot flashes are a well-documented side effect, making it the most appropriate choice for client education.
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How many mL/h should the nurse set the IV infusion pump to deliver half the total volume of lactated Ringer's (4,080 mL) in the first 8 hours?
- A. 200 mL/h
- B. 225 mL/h
- C. 250 mL/h
- D. 255 mL/h
- E. 275 mL/h
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 255 mL/h. To deliver half of 4,080 mL in 8 hours, you need to administer 2,040 mL in 8 hours. To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total volume by the total time: 2,040 mL ÷ 8 hours = 255 mL/h. This rate ensures half of the total volume is infused within the specified time frame.
Choice A (200 mL/h) is too slow, as it would not deliver half the volume in 8 hours. Choices B, C, and E exceed the required rate and would deliver more than half the volume in 8 hours.
Which of the following medications puts the client at risk for developing hearing loss?
- A. Rifampin
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Penicillin G
- D. Gentamicin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gentamicin. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, leading to hearing loss. It can damage the hair cells in the inner ear, affecting hearing. Rifampin (A), Ciprofloxacin (B), and Penicillin G (C) are not associated with ototoxicity. Gentamicin should be used cautiously to prevent hearing loss.
Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to a client with myasthenia gravis who is in a cholinergic crisis?
- A. Potassium Iodide
- B. Glucagon
- C. Atropine
- D. Protamine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
C: Atropine is the correct answer because it is an anticholinergic medication that can counteract the excess acetylcholine causing cholinergic crisis in myasthenia gravis.
Incorrect choices:
A: Potassium Iodide is used for thyroid conditions, not for myasthenia gravis crises.
B: Glucagon is used for hypoglycemia, not for myasthenia gravis crises.
D: Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not for myasthenia gravis crises.
For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor a client who is prescribed metoclopramide following bowel surgery?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Sedation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sedation. Metoclopramide is a medication that can cause sedation as a side effect. After bowel surgery, sedation can mask signs of postoperative complications such as abdominal pain or changes in vital signs. Muscle weakness (A), tinnitus (C), and peripheral edema (D) are not common adverse effects of metoclopramide and would not typically be monitored for in this situation. Sedation is the most relevant adverse effect to monitor for in a client post-bowel surgery, as it can impact the assessment and management of their recovery.
For which of the following client outcomes should the nurse administer chlordiazepoxide to a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Minimize diaphoresis
- B. Maintain abstinence
- C. Lessen craving
- D. Prevent delirium tremens
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prevent delirium tremens. Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine used to manage acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms, including preventing delirium tremens, a severe and potentially life-threatening complication. It helps to stabilize the client's central nervous system by reducing the risk of seizures and severe agitation associated with delirium tremens. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as chlordiazepoxide's primary role in alcohol withdrawal is not to minimize diaphoresis, maintain abstinence, or lessen craving, but rather to manage the more serious symptoms of withdrawal like delirium tremens.