Nokea
The nurse has been assigned the following patients. Which patients require assessment of blood glucose control as a nursing priority? (Select all that apply.)
- A. 18-year-old male who has undergone surgical correction of a fractured femur
- B. 29-year-old female who is undergoing evaluation for pheochromocytoma
- C. 43-year-old male with acute pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
- D. 62-year-old morbidly obese female who underwent a hysterectomy for ovarian cancer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient with acute pancreatitis receiving TPN is at risk for hyperglycemia due to the high glucose content in TPN. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
A: The 18-year-old male post-surgery for a fractured femur does not have a direct correlation to blood glucose control assessment.
B: The 29-year-old female undergoing evaluation for pheochromocytoma is not directly related to blood glucose control assessment.
D: The 62-year-old morbidly obese female post-hysterectomy for ovarian cancer does not specifically require immediate blood glucose control assessment.
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The patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury and has been getting dialysis 3 days per week. The patient complains of general malaise and is tachypneic. An arterial blood gas shows that the patient’s pH is 19, with a PCO of 30 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 13 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to
- A. administer morphine to slow the respiratory rate.
- B. prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation.
- C. administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- D. cancel tomorrow’s dialysis session.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation. The patient's arterial blood gas results indicate metabolic acidosis (low pH, low bicarbonate) with respiratory compensation (low PCO). In this scenario, the patient is likely experiencing respiratory fatigue due to tachypnea from metabolic acidosis. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are needed to support the patient's respiratory effort and correct the acid-base imbalance. Administering morphine (choice A) can further depress the respiratory drive. Administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate (choice C) can temporarily correct the pH but does not address the underlying respiratory distress. Canceling dialysis (choice D) is not indicated as it does not address the acute respiratory compromise.
The patient is in the critical care unit and will receive dialysis this morning. The nurse will (Select all that apply.)
- A. evaluate morning laboratory results and report abnormal results.
- B. administer the patient’s antihypertensive medications.
- C. assess the dialysis access site and report abnormalities.
- D. weigh the patient to monitor fluid status.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. By evaluating the morning laboratory results and reporting abnormal results, the nurse can ensure the patient's safety during dialysis by addressing any concerning findings promptly. This step is crucial in monitoring the patient's condition and adjusting the treatment plan as needed.
Incorrect choices:
B: Administering antihypertensive medications is not directly related to the patient's dialysis procedure and does not address the immediate needs of the patient in the critical care unit.
C: While assessing the dialysis access site is important, reporting abnormalities alone may not be sufficient without a comprehensive evaluation of the patient's laboratory results.
D: Weighing the patient to monitor fluid status is important in the context of dialysis, but it is not as critical as evaluating laboratory results for immediate intervention.
The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Assess the patient’s hearing.
- B. Assess the patient’s lungs.
- C. Decrease IV fluids once the diuretic has been administered.
- D. Give extra doses before giving radiological contrast agents.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's lungs. In rhabdomyolysis, muscle breakdown releases myoglobin which can cause kidney damage. Mannitol is given to prevent kidney damage by promoting diuresis. However, mannitol can also cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema. Therefore, assessing the patient's lungs is crucial to monitor for signs of fluid overload and prevent complications.
A: Assessing the patient's hearing is not directly related to the management of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration.
C: Decreasing IV fluids after administering a diuretic like mannitol can lead to inadequate fluid resuscitation and worsening kidney injury.
D: Giving extra doses before radiological contrast agents is not necessary in the context of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration.
An advantage of peritoneal dialysis is that
- A. peritoneal dialysis is time intensive.
- B. a decreased risk of peritonitis exists.
- C. biochemical disturbances are corrected rapidly.
- D. the danger of hemorrhage is minimal.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a decreased risk of peritonitis exists. Peritoneal dialysis involves using the peritoneum as a membrane for fluid exchange, reducing the risk of infections like peritonitis compared to hemodialysis. Option A is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can be done at home and is less time-consuming than hemodialysis. Option C is incorrect as biochemical disturbances are corrected more gradually with peritoneal dialysis. Option D is incorrect as there is a risk of bleeding complications with peritoneal dialysis.
An elderly female patient has presented to the emergency department with altered mental status, hypothermia, and clinical signs of heart failure. Myxedema is suspected. Which of the following laboratory findings support this diagnosis?
- A. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone
- B. Elevated cortisol levels
- C. Elevated T and T 3 4
- D. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): Elevated T and T3/T4 levels are indicative of primary hypothyroidism, such as myxedema. In this case, the patient presents with classic symptoms of hypothyroidism, including altered mental status, hypothermia, and heart failure. Elevated T3/T4 levels confirm the diagnosis.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone is associated with adrenal disorders, not hypothyroidism.
B: Elevated cortisol levels suggest Cushing's syndrome, a condition of excess cortisol production, not hypothyroidism.
D: Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone is seen in primary hypothyroidism, but in myxedema, the issue is not with TSH but with T3/T4 levels.