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The patient has been admitted to the hospital with nausea and vomiting that started 5 days earlier. Blood pressure is 80/44 mm Hg and heart rate is 122 beats/min; the patient has not voided in 8 hours, and the bladder is not distended. The nurse anticipates a prescription for “stat” administration of
- A. a blood transfusion.
- B. fluid replacement with 0.45% saline.
- C. infusion of an inotropic agent.
- D. an antiemetic.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: fluid replacement with 0.45% saline. The patient's symptoms suggest dehydration and hypovolemia, indicated by low blood pressure, elevated heart rate, and lack of urine output. Fluid replacement with isotonic saline would help restore intravascular volume and improve blood pressure. Blood transfusion (A) is not indicated without evidence of significant blood loss. Inotropic agents (C) are used to improve cardiac function, which is not the primary issue in this case. Antiemetics (D) may help with nausea and vomiting but do not address the underlying cause of hypovolemia.
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The patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury and has been getting dialysis 3 days per week. The patient complains of general malaise and is tachypneic. An arterial blood gas shows that the patient’s pH is 19, with a PCO of 30 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 13 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to
- A. administer morphine to slow the respiratory rate.
- B. prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation.
- C. administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- D. cancel tomorrow’s dialysis session.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation. The patient's arterial blood gas results indicate metabolic acidosis (low pH, low bicarbonate) with respiratory compensation (low PCO). In this scenario, the patient is likely experiencing respiratory fatigue due to tachypnea from metabolic acidosis. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are needed to support the patient's respiratory effort and correct the acid-base imbalance. Administering morphine (choice A) can further depress the respiratory drive. Administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate (choice C) can temporarily correct the pH but does not address the underlying respiratory distress. Canceling dialysis (choice D) is not indicated as it does not address the acute respiratory compromise.
A patient with type 1 diabetes who is receiving a continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion via an insulin pump contacts the clinic to report mechanical failure of the infusion pump. The nurse instructs the patient to begin monitoring for signs of:
- A. adrenal insufficiency.
- B. diabetic ketoacidosis.
- C. hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state.
- D. hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: diabetic ketoacidosis. When an insulin pump fails, the patient may experience a sudden decrease in insulin delivery, leading to a potential rise in blood glucose levels. This can trigger diabetic ketoacidosis, characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis. Monitoring for signs such as increased thirst, frequent urination, fruity breath odor, and rapid breathing is crucial.
Incorrect choices:
A: Adrenal insufficiency is not directly related to insulin pump failure.
C: Hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state is more common in type 2 diabetes and typically occurs with extreme hyperglycemia, not sudden pump failure.
D: Hypoglycemia is less likely with pump failure due to decreased insulin delivery.
Continuous venovenous hemodialysis is used to
- A. remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection.
- B. remove plasma water in cases of volume overload.
- C. remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate.
- D. combine ultrafiltration, convection and dialysis Continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD) is similar to CVVH in that ultrafiltration removes plasma water. It differs in that dialysate solution is added around the hemofilter membranes to facilitate solute removal by the process of diffusion. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) is used to remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection. Slow continuous ultrafiltration (SCUF) is also known as isolated ultrafiltration and is used to remove plasma water in cases of volume overload. Continuous venovenous hemodiafiltration (CVVHDF) combines ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis to maximize fluid and solute removal.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because continuous venovenous hemodiafiltration (CVVHDF) combines ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis to maximize fluid and solute removal. Ultrafiltration removes plasma water, convection removes fluids and solutes, and dialysis facilitates solute removal through diffusion.
Choice A is incorrect because convection alone does not remove solutes, but CVVHDF combines convection with other methods.
Choice B is incorrect because CVVHDF is not specifically used for volume overload, although it does remove fluids.
Choice C is incorrect because CVVHDF does not involve adding dialysate to remove solutes; instead, it relies on diffusion for solute removal.
In summary, the correct answer D is the best choice as it encompasses all the components needed for comprehensive fluid and solute removal in CVVHDF.
The most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients is
- A. sepsis.
- B. fluid overload.
- C. medications.
- D. hemodynamic instability.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: sepsis. Sepsis is a leading cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients due to the systemic inflammatory response leading to kidney damage. Fluid overload (B) can contribute but is not the primary cause. Medications (C) and hemodynamic instability (D) can also lead to acute kidney injury but are not as common as sepsis in critically ill patients.
The patient is complaining of severe flank pain when he tries to urinate. His urinalysis shows sediment and crystals along with a few bacteria. Using this information along with the clinical picture, the nurse realizes that the patient’s condition is
- A. prerenal.
- B. postrenal.
- C. intrarenal.
- D. not renal related.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal. The presence of sediment, crystals, and bacteria in the urinalysis indicates an issue within the kidneys themselves. The flank pain suggests renal involvement. Prerenal would involve issues before the kidneys, such as inadequate blood flow. Postrenal would involve issues after the kidneys, such as urinary tract obstruction. Not renal related is incorrect as the symptoms and urinalysis findings clearly point to a renal issue.