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A patient at high risk for breast cancer is scheduled for an incisional biopsy in the outpatient surgery department. When the nurse is providing preoperative education, the patient asks why an incisional biopsy is being done instead of just removing the mass. What would be the nurses best response?
- A. An incisional biopsy is performed because its known to be less painful and more accurate than other forms of testing.
- B. An incisional biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis and so that special studies can be done that will help determine the best treatment.
- C. An incisional biopsy is performed to assess the potential for recovery from a mastectomy.
- D. An incisional biopsy is performed on patients who are younger than the age of 40 and who are otherwise healthy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an incisional biopsy is typically performed to confirm a diagnosis by obtaining a sample of the tissue in question. This allows for further analysis through special studies to determine the best course of treatment. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: The reason for performing an incisional biopsy is not primarily based on pain or accuracy comparisons with other testing methods.
C: An incisional biopsy is not done to assess potential recovery from a mastectomy but rather to diagnose the nature of the mass.
D: Age and general health status are not sole criteria for determining the need for an incisional biopsy.
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A placenta previa when the placental edge just reaches the internal os is called
- A. total.
- B. partial.
- C. low-lying.
- D. marginal.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, marginal. Placenta previa is classified based on the proximity of the placental edge to the internal os. In a marginal placenta previa, the placental edge just reaches the internal os. This is a crucial distinction as it poses a higher risk for bleeding during labor. Total placenta previa covers the entire internal os, partial placenta previa partially covers the internal os, and low-lying placenta is when the placenta is close to but not covering the internal os. Therefore, D is correct as it accurately describes the specific position of the placenta edge in relation to the internal os in cases of marginal placenta previa.
The nurse in a pediatric ICU is caring for a child who is dying of sickle cell anemia. The childs mother has been unable to eat or sleep and can talk only about her impending loss and the guilt she feels about the childs pain and suffering. What intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Allowing the patient to express her feelings without judging her
- B. Helping the patient to understand the phases of the grieving process
- C. Reassuring the patient that the childs death is not her fault
- D. Arranging for genetic counseling to inform the patient of her chances of having another child with the disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Allowing the patient to express her feelings without judging her. This intervention has the highest priority as it focuses on providing emotional support and creating a safe space for the mother to express her emotions without feeling judged. In this situation, the mother is experiencing intense guilt and grief, and allowing her to talk about her feelings can help her process her emotions and cope with the impending loss. By listening actively and without judgment, the nurse can demonstrate empathy and compassion, which are crucial in supporting the mother through this difficult time.
Summary:
B: Helping the patient to understand the phases of the grieving process may be helpful, but it is not the highest priority at this moment.
C: Reassuring the patient that the child's death is not her fault is important, but the priority is to address the mother's emotional needs first.
D: Arranging for genetic counseling is not the highest priority at this time as the immediate focus should be on providing emotional support to the mother
While taking a health history on a 20-year-old female patient, the nurse ascertains that this patient is taking miconazole (Monistat). The nurse is justified in presuming that this patient has what medical condition?
- A. Bacterial vaginosis
- B. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Toxic shock syndrome (TSS)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): The nurse can presume the patient has candidiasis since miconazole is commonly used to treat fungal infections like vaginal yeast infections caused by Candida. This medication works by stopping the growth of the fungus. Therefore, the patient's use of miconazole indicates a probable diagnosis of candidiasis.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A (Bacterial vaginosis): Miconazole is not used to treat bacterial infections like bacterial vaginosis, which is caused by an imbalance of bacteria in the vagina.
B (HPV): Miconazole is not used to treat viral infections like HPV, which is a sexually transmitted infection caused by certain types of human papillomavirus.
D (TSS): Miconazole is not used to treat toxic shock syndrome, which is a severe complication of certain bacterial infections and is not typically associated with miconazole use.
A nurse is addressing the incidence and prevalence of HIV infection among older adults. What principle should guide the nurses choice of educational interventions?
- A. Many older adults do not see themselves as being at risk for HIV infection.
- B. Many older adults are not aware of the difference between HIV and AIDS.
- C. Older adults tend to have more sex partners than younger adults.
- D. Older adults have the highest incidence of intravenous drug use.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it addresses the key issue of perception of risk among older adults. Many older adults may not perceive themselves as being at risk for HIV infection due to misconceptions or lack of awareness. This principle guides the nurse to tailor educational interventions to address this specific barrier. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the perception of risk among older adults. Older adults' awareness of HIV/AIDS, number of sex partners, or incidence of intravenous drug use are not the primary factors influencing their perception of HIV risk.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of vulvar cancer who has returned from the PACU after undergoing a wide excision of the vulva. How should this patients analgesic regimen be best managed?
- A. Analgesia should be withheld unless the patients pain becomes unbearable.
- B. Scheduled analgesia should be administered around-the-clock to prevent pain.
- C. All analgesics should be given on a PRN, rather than scheduled, basis.
- D. Opioid analgesics should be avoided and NSAIDs exclusively provided.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Scheduled analgesia should be administered around-the-clock to prevent pain. After undergoing a wide excision of the vulva, the patient is likely to experience significant pain. Scheduled analgesia ensures that the patient receives pain relief consistently, preventing pain from becoming severe. This approach helps to maintain a therapeutic level of pain control and improves patient comfort and satisfaction.
Choice A is incorrect because withholding analgesia until the pain becomes unbearable can lead to unnecessary suffering and poor pain management. Choice C is incorrect as PRN dosing may result in inadequate pain relief and fluctuations in pain control. Choice D is incorrect as opioids are often necessary for postoperative pain management, and NSAIDs alone may not provide sufficient relief for the level of pain associated with a wide excision surgery.