While performing a routine assessment, a nurse notices fraying on the electrical cord of a client's continuous passive motion(CPM) device. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Initiate a requisition for a replacement CPM device.
- B. Report the defect to the equipment maintenance staff.
- C. Remove the device from the room.
- D. Ensure the device inspection sticker is current.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Remove the device from the room. The fraying electrical cord poses a serious safety hazard, risking electrical shock or fire. The first step is to remove the device to prevent harm to the client or others. Initiating a requisition (A) or reporting to maintenance staff (B) can follow, but immediate removal is crucial. Ensuring the inspection sticker is current (D) is not the priority when there is a safety issue.
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Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. After 5 to 10 minutes when the breast is emptied, my baby should be removed from the breast.â€
- B. Manually expressing my milk will decrease my milk supply.
- C. My baby should always start on the same breast when feeding.â€
- D. The more my baby is at the breast sucking, the mare milk I will produce.â€
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it reflects an understanding of the concept of supply and demand in breastfeeding. The statement acknowledges that the more the baby suckles, the more milk the parent will produce. This aligns with the principle that frequent and effective nursing stimulates milk production.
Choice A is incorrect because it suggests limiting nursing time, which can hinder milk production. Choice B is incorrect as manual expression can actually help increase milk supply. Choice C is incorrect as it is recommended to offer both breasts during a feeding session to ensure the baby receives enough hindmilk.
The client is at risk for developing ------- and--------
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. bronchopulmonary dysplasia
- C. transient tachypnea of the newborn
- D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: A, C
Rationale: The correct answer is A and C. Hypoglycemia and transient tachypnea of the newborn are common risks for newborns. Hypoglycemia can occur due to immature liver function, while transient tachypnea results from retained lung fluid. The other choices are incorrect because bronchopulmonary dysplasia is a chronic lung condition seen in premature infants, and tachycardia is a symptom of various conditions but not typically a primary risk for newborns.
Select the 5 findings that require immediate follow-up
- A. Stool results
- B. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Heart rate
- E. Current medications
- F. Temperature
- G. WIC count
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E,H
Rationale: The correct choices for immediate follow-up are A, B, D, E, and H. Stool results (A) are crucial for detecting gastrointestinal issues. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (B) levels indicate blood health. Heart rate (D) reflects cardiovascular function. Current medications (E) help assess potential drug interactions. WIC count (H) is essential for monitoring infection. Respiratory rate (C) and temperature (F) are important but not as urgent.
Which of the following information should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?
- A. Apply petroleum jelly to soothe the mucous membranes
- B. Use synthetic fabrics for the client’s bedding
- C. Clean the equipment with an alcohol-based cleaning product.
- D. Avoid using nail polish remover around the client.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Avoid using nail polish remover around the client. This is important because nail polish remover contains harsh chemicals that can be harmful if inhaled or absorbed through the skin, especially for clients with compromised health conditions. Applying petroleum jelly (choice A) may not be recommended as it can trap bacteria and cause infection. Using synthetic fabrics for bedding (choice B) may not be ideal as natural fibers are more breathable and comfortable. Cleaning equipment with alcohol-based products (choice C) may not be suitable as it can be irritating to sensitive skin. Therefore, choice D is the best option for the client's safety and well-being.
A nurse is reporting a client's laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the cient's daily warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?
- A. Fibrinogen level
- B. aPTT
- C. INR
- D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor and adjust the dosage of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. A nurse needs to report the INR level to the provider to determine if the current dosage of warfarin is effective in preventing blood clots. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for blood to clot, meaning the warfarin dosage might need adjustment.
Incorrect choices:
A: Fibrinogen level - Fibrinogen is a protein involved in blood clotting but is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy.
B: aPTT - Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Platelet count - Platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy.
Overall, the INR is the most